Đề Thi Học Sinh Giỏi Tiếng Anh Lớp 9 Huyện Thanh Oai – Đề 1

PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO HUYỆN THANH OAI

aif ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 9

NĂM HỌC: 2017 - 2018

MÔN: TIẾNG ANH (VÒNG 2)

Thời gian: 150 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)

Chú ý: - Bộ đề thi này gồm có 06 trang, từ trang 01 đến trang 06.

- Thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp vào bộ đề thi này.

Điểm	Họ tên, chữ ký của người chấm thi số 1:	Số phách
- Bằng số:……………..	………………………………………...	(Do Chủ tịch hội đồng chấm thi ghi)
- Bằng chữ:……………	Họ tên, chữ ký của người chấm thi số 2:	…………………..
………………………...	………………………………………...

PART ONE: LISTENING (3.0 pts)

LISTEN AND FILL IN THE GAPS: (15 0.2 = 3.0 pts)

HOMEWORK:

Sometimes, my teacher gives us homework.

I don't mind doing my homework (1).......................... when the weather is really nice, and all my friends are outside.

On those nights, I'd rather be outside with them, so I try to get my homework (2).......................... quickly.

Tonight, I have some English homework. We have been reading a book. We have to (3).......................... a chapter of the book and answer the questions at the end of the chapter.

It is an (4).......................... book, so the homework for this is quite easy.

My math homework is not so easy. I have to do some (5).......................... and subtraction.

I don't mind that, but there are some problems that need to be (6)...........................

The problems involve addition, subtraction and multiplication.

I am not too good with numbers. I need to work harder on my math. I just finished a (7).......................... for history.

I had to make a map of Canada with diagrams showing the (8).......................... of all the explorers. It was an interesting project because I have been to some of the places that the (9).......................... went to.

I don't have any science homework. At school, we are growing (10).......................... plants.

We go in every day and see how the plants have grown.

We write down all the changes that (11).......................... in the plant every day.

The only other homework that I have is geography.

I have a map of Canada, and I have to write the names of all the provinces and their

(12).......................... on it.

It won't take me long to do that because I know all the provinces.

When my homework is (13).......................... done, I will go outside and play ball with my friends until it is time to come in.

I am a good student. I get good (14).......................... because I like school.

My favorite subjects are physical education, English and history.

Math is my least favorite subject, but I'm trying to (15).......................... my marks in that.

-> Your answers:

PART TWO: PHONETICS: (2.0 pts)

I. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently: (5 0.2=1.0 pt)

		A. breath		B. with		C. southern		D. northern
		A. championship		B. champagne		C. machinery		D. moustache
		A. laugh		B. though		C. cough		D. rough
		A. adverb		B. admirable		C. advertise		D. adventure
		A. organization		B. forward		C. dormitory		D. information

II. Choose the word in each group which has the main stress on a different syllable from the others (5 0,2 = 1,0 pt):

A. uniform	B. applicant	C. yesterday	D. employment
A. indicator	B. accident	C. longitude	D. magnificent
A. instruct	B. monster	C. abroad	D. depend
A. injury	B. intend	C. income	D. interest
A. communicate	B. inspiration	C. embroidery	D. experience

-> Your answers:

PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURES: (5.5pts)

I. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences: (15 0.1 = 1.5 pts)

21. As soon as Linh opened the door, he found someone had ……..…………..her house.

    A. broken out

    B. broken up

    C. broken down

    D. broken into

22. My friend, Tom, feels sick. He wishes she ……..…………..so many cakes.

    A. doesn’t eat

    B. hadn’t eaten

    C. didn’t eat

    D. ate

23. Why don’t you buy bananas when they are much……..…………..apples?

    A. less expensive than

    B. lesser expensive than

    C. not expensive than

    D. expensive than

24. Not until 2008 ……..…………..across the river.

    A. was the first bridge built	B. the first bridge was built
    C. built the first bridge	D. the first building of a bridge was

25. He insisted on ……..…………..a receipt for the bill he had paid.

    A. being given

    B. given

    C. giving

    D. to be given

26. Hoang does not speak Chinese. David does not speak Chinese. ->……..……………

A. Both Hoang and David doesn’t speak Chinese.	B. Neither Hoang nor David speaks Chinese.
C. Not either Hoang or David speaks Chinese.	D. Not only Hoang but also David does speak Chinese.

32. All of us will not be able to pass the coming exam ……..…………..learning harder.

    A. without

    B. if

    C. although

    D. unless

33. If Michael ……..…………..more slowly, he would have been able to stop.

    A. drove

    B. has driven

    C. didn’t drive

    D. had been driving

34. Only after doing his chores……..…………..to go to meet his friends.

A. was Jason allowed

B. was allowed Jason

C. did Jason allow

D. Jason was allowed

35. You have to pay ……..…………..to what the teacher is explaining.

    A. intention

    B. attendance

    C. attention

    D. convention

36. My pet dogs were so dirty that they looked as if they ……..…………..in the mud.

    A. have been lying

    B. had been laid

    C. had been lay

    D. had been lain

37. Linda would have gone out with us to John’s wedding party iIf she……..…………..sick.

A. hadn’t been

B. weren’t

C. hasn’t been

D. wasn’t

38. The novels ……..…………..by Mark Twain attract a lot of children.

A. being written

B. to be written

C. writing

D. written

39. We hope you don’t mind us……..…………..so late at night.

    A. to have telephoned

    B. to telephone

    C. telephoning

    D. telephone

40. Nobody was injured in the accident three days ago, ……..…………..?

A. was he

B. wasn’t it

C. was there

D. were they

-> Your answers:

II. Give the correct form of the words given to complete the sentences: (10 0.2 = 2.0 pts)

MEMORIES

I will never forget the most wonderful (0) wonderful moment in your Career when we given the highest score for our (41)........................... in the ice-skating championship (42)........................... at Hensinki. We received the (43)........................... score of nine marks of 6.0, Which was the maximum score that could’t be given. The (44)........................... of time that we had spent practising our Dance routine finally paid off. The (45)........................... that we had found with some of the (46)........................... pieces we had chosen was soon overcome and becoming (47)........................... was only a matter of time. Those were the (48)........................... days of being young and (49)........................... about everything and having the feeling that our (50)........................... would never lessen.

WONDER (41) PERFORM (42) COMPETE (43) BELIEVABLE (44) LONG (45) DIFFICULT (46) MUSIC (47) FAME (48) EXCITE (49) OPTIMISM (50) POPULAR

-> Your answers:

III. Fill in the missing preposition or adverb: (10 x 0.2 = 2.0 pts)

see about = make arrangements for

see off = accompany a traveller to his/ her train etc

see over = inspect properly

see to = take care of

see through = (1) not be deceived, (2) support sb through a difficult time

settle down = live a more permanent life-style

settle for = accept sth (less than expected)

settle in = become used to a new house or job

settle on = decide on

41. Mr. Tinh was hoping to sell his car for $1,000 but he had to settle ........................... $800.

42. Once we’ve settled ..........................., we’ll invite you for a long weekend.

43. Could you please see........................... getting the sofa re-covered?

44. The settled........................... the Ritz as the best place for the reception.

45. We made an appointment to see...........................the cottage before we decided to buy it.

46. The children were seen ...........................at the station by the entire family.

47. Could you see...........................those messages while I read through this report?

48. Hung said he would make me a rich man, but I saw...........................him immediately.

49. After wandering for years, they settled...........................in a small village in Wales.

50. Hoang Anh saw his best friend...........................his divorce.

-> Your answers:

PART FOUR: READING COMPREHENSION: (5.0 pts)

I. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase for each of the blanks. (10 0.2 = 2.0 pts)

Schools in the United States have not always had a large number of libraries. As (61)........................... as 1958 about half of the public schools in the United States had no libraries at all. The number of public school libraries increased dramatically (62)........................... the federal government passed the Elementary and Secondary Education Act of 1965, (63)........................... provided funds for school districts to improve their education programs and facilities, including their libraries. (64)..........................., many educators claim that since the legislation was passed federal spending has not increased sufficiently to meet the rising (65)........................... of new library technologies such as computer databases and Internet access.

Because the federal government provides only limited funds to schools, individual school districts (66)........................... on funds from local property taxes to meet the vast majority of public school expenses. Therefore, the libraries of the public schools tend to reflect the (67)........................... capabilities of the communities in which they are located. Districts in wealthy suburbs often have fully staffed libraries (68)........................... abundant resources, spacious facilities, and curricular and instructional support. In (69)..........................., school districts in many poor areas house their libraries in ordinary classrooms or in small rooms. The libraries in such areas are generally staffed by volunteers, who organize and (70)........................... books that are often out-of-date, irrelevant, or damaged.

61. A. freshly 62. A. though 63. A. that 64. A. Nevertheless 65. A. fine 66. A. go 67. A. educational 68. A. with 69. A. country 70. A. attain

B. frequently B. with B. which B. Consequently B. fee B. rely B. economical B. for B. converse B. obtain

C. recently C. during C. who C. Therefore C. cost C. come C. political C. on C. contrast C. contain

D. newly D. when D. this D. Otherwise D. sum D. stay D. financial D. by D. conflict D. maintain

-> Your answers:

II. Read the following passage and fill each numbered blank with only ONE suitable word. (10 × 0,2 = 2,0 pts)

KEEPING FIT

Bodies are made to move! They are not designed for sitting around in front of the television or reading magazines. Keeping fit doesn’t (71) ………………… you have to be a super – athlete, and even a little exercise can give you a lot of fun. When you are fit and healthy, you’ll find you look better and feel better, you’ll (72) ………………… more energy and self – confidence.

Every time you move, you are exercising. The human body is designed to bend, stretch, run, jump and climb. The (73) ………………… it does, the stronger and fitter it will be. Best of (74) …………………, exercise is fun. It’s what your body likes doing most – keeping on the move.

Physical exercise is not only good (75) ………………… your body. People who take regular exercise are usually happier, more relaxed and more alert (76) ………………… people who sit around all day. Try an experiment next time when you’re (77)………………… a bad mood, go for a walk or play a ball game in the park. See how (78)………………… better you feel after an hour.

A sense of achievement is yet another benefit of exercise. People feel good (79)………………… themselves when they know they have improved their fitness. People who exercise regularly will (80)………………… you that they have more energy to enjoy life. So have a go. You’ll soon see and feel the benefits!

-> Your answers:

III. Read the passage and choose the best option A, B, C, or D to answer the following questions: (5 0.2=1.0 pt)

After inventing dynamite, Swedish-born Alfred Nobel became a very rich man. However, he foresaw its universally destructive powers too late. Nobel preferred not to be remembered as the inventor of dynamite, so in 1895, just two weeks before his death, he created a fund to be used for awarding prizes to people who had made worthwhile contributions to mankind. Originally there were five awards literature, physics, chemistry, medicine and peace. Economics was added in 1968, just sixty-seven years after the first awards ceremony.

Nobel's original legacy of nine million dollars was invested, and the interest on this sum is used for the awards which vary from $30,000 to $125,000.

Every year on December 10, the anniversary of Nobel's death, the awards are presented to the winners. Sometimes politics plays an important role in the judges' decisions. Americans have won numerous science awards, but relatively few literature prizes.

No awards were presented from 1940 to 1942 at the beginning of World War II. Some people have won two prizes, but this is rare; others have shared their prizes.

81. The word "foresaw" is nearest in meaning to ................

A. prevailed B. postponed C. prevented D. predicted

82. All of the following statements are true EXCEPT:

A. awards vary in monetary value.

B. ceremonies are held on December 10 to commemorate Nobel's invention.

C. politics plays an important role in selecting the winners.

D. a few individuals have won two awards.

83. The passage implies that Nobel's profession was in ...............

A. economics B. medicine C. literature D. science

84. The word "worthwhile" is closest in meaning to ...............

A. economic B. prestigious C. trivial D. valuable

85. What is the main idea of the passage?

A. Alfred Nobel made lasting contribution to humanity

B. Alfred Nobel created awards in six categories for contributions to humanity.

C. Alfred Nobel left all his money to science.

D. Alfred Nobel became very rich when he invented dynamite.

-> Your answers:

PART FIVE: WRITING: (4.5 pts)

I. Rewrite the following sentences with the same meaning as the first ones: (5 0.2=1.0 pt)

86. Could you speak French when you were younger? (able)

-> ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….…………………..?

87. I haven’t decided whether to move or not yet. (made)

-> ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….……………………..

88. Although the team played well, the football team of my school lost. (in spite of)

-> ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….……………………..

89. My father said that it was my fault that his driving lience had been lost. (blamed)

-> ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….……………………..

90. Mr. Huy met Miss Hanh during his stay in Paris two months ago. (staying)

-> ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….……………………..

II. Write complete sentences using the suggested words: (5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

91. There/ several things/ spoken English/ that make/ it difficult/ me/ to understand.

-> ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….……………………..

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….……………………..

92. First, many words/ not pronounced/ as they/ are spelled, so when I learn/ new words through reading,/ I sometimes/ not understand them/ when they/ spoken.

-> ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….……………………..

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….……………………..

93. Second, native speakers/ have/ wide range/ accents. A British accent/ very different/ Texas one.

-> ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….……………………..

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….……………………..

94. Third, there/ a lot of idioms/ slang expressions./ These expressions/ also differ depending/ the area/ speaker is from.

-> ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….……………………..

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….……………………..

95. Finally, there/ sounds that/ not exist/ my native language./ These sounds/ difficult/ me/ distinguish.

-> ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….……………………..

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….……………………..

III. Write an essay (200 words) about the advantages of learning English: (2.5 points) (The essay must have a title and 3 parts: Opening, Body and Conclusion.

Don’t show your proper names/ school/ village…)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….……………………..

ĐÁP ÁN

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 9

NĂM HỌC: 2017 - 2018

MÔN: TIẾNG ANH (VÒNG 2)

PART ONE: LISTENING (3.0 pts)

LISTEN AND FILL IN THE GAPS: (15 0.2 = 3.0 pts)

except	done	read	interesting	addition
solved	project	routes	explorers	bean
occur	capitals	all	marks	improve

PART TWO: PHONETICS: (2.0 pts)

I. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently: (5 0.2=1.0 pt)

A. breath

A. championship

B. though

D. adventure

D. information

II. Choose the word in each group which has the main stress on a different syllable from the others (5 0.2 = 1,0 pt):

D. employment

D. magnificent

B. monster

B. intend

B. inspiration

PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURES: (5.5pts)

I. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences: (15 0.1 = 1.5 pts)

D. broken into	B. hadn’t eaten	A. less expensive than	A. was the first bridge built	A. being given
B. Neither Hoang nor David speaks Chinese	A. without	D. had been driving	A. was Jason allowed	C. attention
B. had been laid	A. hadn’t been	D. written	C. telephoning	D. were they

II. Give the correct form of the words given to complete the sentences: (10 0.2 = 2.0 pts)

perfomance	competition	unbelievable	length	difficulty
musical	famous	exciting	optimistic	popularly

III. Fill in the missing preposition or adverb: (10 x 0.2 = 2.0 pts)

settle for	settle in	see about	settle on	see over
see off	see to	see through	settle down	see through

PART FOUR: READING COMPREHENSION: (5.0 pts)

I. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase for each of the blanks. (10 0.2 = 2.0 pts)

C. recently	D. when	B. which	A. Nevertheless	C. cost
B. rely	D. financial	A. with	C. contrast	D. maintain

II. Read the following passage and fill each numbered blank with only ONE suitable word. (10 × 0.2 = 2.0 pts)

71: mean	72: have	73: more	74: all	75: for
76: than	77: in	78: much	79: about/ in	80: tell

III. Read the passage and choose the best option A, B, C, or D to answer the following questions: (5 0.2=1.0 pt)

D

B

D

D

A

PART FIVE: WRITING: (4.5 pts)

I. Rewrite the following sentences with the same meaning as the first ones: (5 0.2=1.0 pt)

86. When you were younger, were you able to speak French?

(Or: Were you able to speak French when you were younger?)

87. I haven’t made up my mind whether to move or not yet.

88. In spite of playing well, the football team of my school lost.

89. My brother blamed me for having lost/ losing his driving lience.

90. Mr. Huy met Miss Hanh while he was staying in Paris two months ago.

II. Write complete sentences using the suggested words: (5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

91. There are several things of spoken English that make it difficult for me to understand.

92. First, many words are not pronounced as they are spelled, so when I learn new words

through reading, I sometimes do not understand them when they are spoken.

93. Second, native speakers have a wide range of accents. A British accent is very different

from a Texas one.

94. Third, there are a lot of idioms and slang expressions. These expressions also differ

depending on the area of speaker is from.

95. Finally, there are sounds that do not exist in my native language. These sounds are

difficult for me to distinguish.

III. Write an essay (200 words) about the advantages of learning English: (2.5 points) (The essay must have a title and 3 parts: Opening, Body and Conclusion.

Don’t show any proper names/ schools/ villages…)

Notes: The mark given to this part is based on the following scheme:

1. Content: (40% of total mark) a provision of all main ideas and as details as appropriate.

2. Organization & Presentation: (30% of total mark) ideas are organized and presented with coherence, style, and clarity appropriate to the level of English language gifted secondary school students.

3. Language: (30% of total mark) a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of English language gifted secondary school students.

Notes for marking:

Total mark = 20 points

80 sentences 0.2 = 16 points

15 sentences 0.1 = 1.5points (from sentence 26 -> sentence 40)

The essay = 2.5 points