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Đề Thi Học Sinh Giỏi Tiếng Anh Lớp 7 Huyện Thanh Oai Có Đáp Án Và File Nghe – Đề số 1

Đề Thi Học Sinh Giỏi Tiếng Anh Lớp 7 Huyện Thanh Oai Có Đáp Án Và File Nghe – Đề số 1 được Trang Tài Liệu sưu tầm với các thông tin mới nhất hiện nay. Đề thi này sẽ giúp các em học sinh ôn tập, củng cố kiến thức, rèn luyện kĩ năng làm bài. Cũng như hỗ trợ thầy cô trong quá trình giảng dạy. Hy vọng những tài liệu này sẽ giúp các em trong quá trình ôn luyện và đạt kết quả cao trong bài thi sắp tới.

Đề thi học sinh giỏi tiếng Anh lớp 7 là một cơ hội tuyệt vời để các em học sinh thể hiện khả năng và kiến thức của mình trong môn tiếng Anh. Trong bài viết này, chúng ta sẽ tìm hiểu về Đề thi học sinh giỏi tiếng Anh lớp 7 Huyện Thanh Oai, được cung cấp đáp án và file nghe đi kèm, tập trung vào đề số 1.

Đề thi học sinh giỏi tiếng Anh lớp 7 Huyện Thanh Oai không chỉ là một bài kiểm tra thông thường, mà còn là một cơ hội để các em thử thách bản thân và đo lường sự tiến bộ trong quá trình học tập. Với việc có đáp án và file nghe kèm theo, đề thi này sẽ giúp các em nắm vững kiến thức cũng như rèn luyện kỹ năng nghe và đọc hiểu.

Trên bài thi số 1, các em sẽ gặp phải những câu hỏi đa dạng về từ vựng, ngữ pháp, đọc hiểu và nghe hiểu. Đề thi được thiết kế nhằm khám phá khả năng ngôn ngữ, sự sáng tạo và khả năng suy luận của các em.

Việc tham gia vào đề thi học sinh giỏi không chỉ giúp các em rèn luyện khả năng tiếng Anh mà còn tạo điều kiện để các em trải nghiệm cảm giác thực tế của việc làm bài trong thời gian giới hạn. Đồng thời, việc có đáp án và file nghe đi kèm cũng giúp các em kiểm tra, tự đánh giá và cải thiện kết quả học tập của mình.

Hãy sẵn sàng đối mặt với những thử thách thú vị từ Đề thi học sinh giỏi tiếng Anh lớp 7 Huyện Thanh Oai, đề số 1. Hãy chuẩn bị tinh thần và sự tập trung cao độ để đạt kết quả tốt nhất.

Đề thi tham khảo

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Dưới đây là bản đọc trực tuyến giúp thầy cô và các em học sinh có thể nghiên cứu Online hoặc bạn có thể tải miễn phí với phiên bản word để dễ dàng in ấn cũng như học tập Offline

PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO HUYỆN THANH OAI

aif ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 7

NĂM HỌC: 2017 - 2018

ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC

MÔN: TIẾNG ANH

Thời gian: 120 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)



Chú ý: - Bộ đề thi này gồm có 06 trang, từ trang 01 đến trang 06.

- Thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp vào bộ đề thi này.



Điểm

Họ tên, chữ ký của người chấm thi số 1:

Số phách

- Bằng số:……………..

………………………………………...

(Do Chủ tịch hội đồng chấm thi ghi)

- Bằng chữ:……………

Họ tên, chữ ký của người chấm thi số 2:

………………………...

………………………………………...

PART ONE: LISTENING Listen and fill in the gaps: (15 0.2 = 3.0 pts)

Schools

There are different (1)............................................... of schools.

There is an elementary school. The children at the elementary school are young. There is a (2)............................................... for them to play in. The classrooms are bright and airy.

There are blackboards in the classrooms. The children sit in desks to do their work.

There is a (3)............................................... lot for the teachers to park in.

There is a (4)............................................... for the students to get food.

The principal has an office. Nobody wants to go to the principal's (5)................................................

It usually means that you are in trouble if you have to go to the principal's office.

When you (6)............................................... elementary school, you go to high school. Most of the students in high school are (7)................................................ There is a parking lot outside the high school. There is also a football field outside. The students go to classes in different classrooms. They move from classroom to classroom for (8)............................................... subject. There is a cafeteria where they can get their (9)............................................... or eat the lunches that they have brought from home.

There is a gymnasium (10)............................................... students have physical education. Dances are also held in the gymnasium.

Some students go on to university (11)............................................... high school. Students at the university are older.

Some of the students are even senior citizens.

People come from all over the (12)............................................... to attend the university.

There are lots of different things at the university.

There is a (13)............................................... where plays and concerts are held, there is a bookstore where students can buy their textbooks, there is a physical education (14)............................................... that has a swimming pool in it. The parking lot at the university is very big.

They call the (15)............................................... that the university is on a campus.

Some of the students live on campus in residences.




-> Your answers:

1..................................

2..................................

3..................................

4..................................

5..................................

6..................................

7..................................

8..................................

9..................................

10..................................

11..................................

12..................................

13..................................

14..................................

15..................................

­­­

PART TWO: PHONETICS: (2.0 pts)

I. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently: (5 0.2=1.0 pt)

16. A. tables B. brushes C. watches D. glasses

17. A. coach B. armchair C. Christmas D. children

18. A. arrived B. laughed C. looked D. watched

19. A. nervous B. scout C. household D. mouse

20. A. together B. teenager C. grow D. regular


-> Your answers:

16..................................

17..................................

18..................................

19..................................

20..................................


II. Choose the word whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others:

(5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

21. A. receive B. number C. disease D. decide

22. A. vacation B. tomato C. material D. surgery

23. A. writer B. soccer C. prefer D. chopstick

24. A. restaurant B. general C. satellite D. arrival

25. A. delicious B. journalist C. favorite D. chemistry



-> Your answers:

21..................................

22..................................

23..................................

24..................................

25..................................


PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURES: (5.0 pts)

I. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences: (10 0.2 = 2.0 pts)

26 . When my brother was a boy, he ............................................ games to lessons.

A. prefer B. preferring C. prefers D. preferred

27. Mrs. Hanh prefers clothes made ............................................ silk ............................................ those of cotton.

A. of/ to B. from/ than C. in/ to D. from/ more

28. Does it take Mr. Hoang 20 minutes............................................ to his office by motorbike?

A. go B. to go C. going D. went

29. We don't have anything to do now. Shall we go to our club? - ............................................

A. Yes, let’s B. Yes, we should C. Yes, we go D. Yes, I shall

30. You looked very ............................................ this morning. What was the problem?

A. unhappy B. unhappily C. to be unhappy D. being unhappy

31. Don't let your brother play video games so often because it can make him.............................................

A. addictive B. wonderful C. interesting D. beautiful

32. My mother told me that: "Being a girl, you ought to learn .......................................... to cook meals."

A. how B. when C. what D. where

33. Ba: "I didn't go to school late this morning." Hoan: " ............................................ "

A. So did I B. I didn't, too C. Neither did I D. Either didn't I

34. – "............................................... do you play badminton?” - “Every afternoon.”

A. Why B. When C. How long D. How often

35. My father is very.......................................... in watching news on TV.

A. interest B. interested C. interesting D. to interest


-> Your answers:


26..................................

27..................................

28..................................

29..................................

30..................................

31..................................

32..................................

33..................................

34..................................

35..................................

II. Give the correct form of the words given to complete the sentences: (10 0.2 =2.0 pts)

36. John is riding his motorbike so .......................... that he is sure to have an accident. CARE

37. Hoang 's parents sometimes punished him for his .......................... LAZY

38. Ha's mother is a teacher of physical .......................... in my school. EDUCATE

39. Miss Lien sings the most.......................... in our town. BEAUTY

40. My Linh is a very pleasant girl, but her friend is a little .......................... FRIEND

41. The twins aren't the same. They always do things.......................... DIFFER

42. It is......................... to advise Mr. Thinh. He never takes anyone’s advice. USE

43. My teacher of Maths has a .......................... computer. PORT

44. Miss Anh is a .......................... She sells so many flowers in Ha Noi. FLOWER

45. One of the most popular.......................... at recess in the USA is talking. ACT

-> Your answers:

36 ..................................

37 ..................................

38 ..................................

39 ..................................

40 ..................................

41 ..................................

42 ..................................

43 ..................................

44 ..................................

45 ..................................



III. Supply the correct forms of the verbs in brackets: (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

46. You can’t make an omelette without (break) .................................... eggs.

47. Daddy, could you tell me how (use) ....................................this laptop?

48. (Take) .................................... these pills and you will feel better then!

49. Your father (be) …………..angry if I use his bicycle?

50. You shouldn't spend all of your time (play) ……………..video games.

-> Your answers:

46.

47.

48.

49.

50.


PART FOUR: READING COMPREHENSION: (5.0 pts)

I. Choose the word or phrase that best fits each gap of the passage: (10 0.2 = 2.0 pts)

One of the first novels in the history of literature (51)…………written in England in 1719. It was Robinson Crusoe by Daniel Defoe. Daniel Defoe was born in London in the family (52)………… a rich man. When Daniel was a schoolboy, he began to write stories. After (53)…………school, he worked in his father’s shop and (54)…………articles for newspapers. Defoe visited many countries and met many people. That helped him (55)…………in his writings.

In 1719, when Defoe was sixty years old, he wrote the novel Robinson Crusoe which (56)…………him famous. Defoe used in his book a true story about a sailor who (57)…………on an island for four years. Robinson Crusoe in Defoe’s novel lived on an island for twenty- eight years. People liked (58)…………novel in England and in many other countries, Daniel Defoe wrote other books. (59)…………; his novel Robinson Crusoe was the (60)…………famous. Defoe was not a rich man when he died in 1731.

51. A. was B. were C. has D. have

52. A. on B. at C. of D. to

53. A. coming B. leaving C. staying D. getting

54. A. wrote B. sold C. bought D. read

55. A. some B. many C. plenty D. much

56. A. brought B. took C. made D. let

57. A. lived B. came C. went D. visited

58. A. a B. an C. the D. Ø

59. A. And B. However C. So D. Because

60. A. very B. much C. best D. most




-> Your answers:

51.

52.

53.

54.

55.

56.

57.

58.

59.

60.



II. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space: (10 0.2 =2.0pts)

My Favorite Hobby

My (61).....………….…. is Susan. My favorite hobby is reading. I enjoy reading books when I (62).....………….…. free time. I started to do it when I was five years old. The first time I read a book, I felt interested (63).....………….…. that book immediately. So I kept reading. My teachers and my parents usually taught me (64).....………….…. read the difficult words. I was very happy when I read a story with a happy ending but I was thrilled when I read a detective story.

I enjoy (65).....………….…. books because  I like to explore the imaginative world of my favorite author, J.K. Rowling (66).....………….…. writes “ Harry Potter” . There are a lot of advantages (67).....………….…. reading. Reading can make me feel relaxed and calm. I can also learn new vocabulary items. Then I can further improve my English. Moreover, it can give me an unlimited imagination, so I can write books in (68).....………….…. future. I can learn the different cultures and customs of other (69).....………….…. in the world, too.

I read at least one hour every day. I read books by myself. I usually read it at home. I wish I could read different kinds (70).....………….…. books because it might be very challenging.    



-> Your answers:

61.

62.

63.

64.

65.

66.

67.

68.

69.

70.

III. Read the text then make questions and answer them: (5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

Thank you for calling the North London Arts Cinema. It opens 7 days a week, showing a variety of British and foreign films.

Next week, we still show an Italian film called “Midnight Meeting”. It is set in Milan in the 1950s. You can see that film from Monday to Thursday. It will be on twice a day in the evenings. That’s at 6.45 and 9.15. The film lasts two hours and fifteen minutes. Tickets are 4, but there is a special student ticket at 2.80 for all our midweek films. Please bring your student card if you want the cheaper ticket. The nearest car park to the cinema is in Victory Street. It’s just five-minute walk from the cinema.

Thank you for calling the North London Arts Cinema. If you require further information, phone during office hours – 9am to 4.30 pm, Monday to Friday.

71. How many days/ week/ the North London Arts Cinema/ open?

……………………………………………………………………………………………?

…………………………………………………………………………………………….

72. What/ title/ film next week?

……………………………………………………………………………………………?

…………………………………………………………………………………………….

73. How long/ film/ last?

……………………………………………………………………………………………?

…………………………………………………………………………………………….

74. What/ a student/ have to do/ if/ he wants/ the cheaper ticket?

…………………………………………………………………………………………….?

…………………………………………………………………………………………….

75. How far/ it/ from/ nearest car park/ the cinema?

…………………………………………………………………………………………….?

…………………………………………………………………………………………….


PART FIVE: WRITING: (5.0 pts)

I. Rewrite the sentences without changing the meaning: (5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

76. Did your father spent the whole morning repairing his car?

-> Did it take..............................................................................................................?

77. You shouldn't stay up too late. It's not good for your health.

-> You had...........................................................................................................................

78. Our newcomers didn’t come to our club last weekend.

-> Our newcomer were...……………………………………………….…..….……………

79. The driving test this morning was easier than my brother thought.

-> The driving test was not……………….......……………………………………………..

80. Learning Chinese is very difficlult for me.

-> It ……………….......……...................................………………………………………..

II. Use the following words and phrases to write complete and meaningful sentences. Make all the necessary changes and additions if necessary. (5 0.2=1.0 pt)

81. The monitor / always goes / class/ on time to be / good example /for the class.

-> …………………………………………………………………………………………….

82. Lan/ go/ the doctor/ yesterday because/ she/ have/ an awful stomachache.

-> …………………………………………………………………………………………….

83. Now, my parents / are / pleased / with/ improvement in my work.

-> …………………………………………………………………………………………….

84. Minh / was / absent / school / last Monday / because / he / ill.

-> …………………………………………………………………………………………….

85. It/ take/ Hoa/ twenty minutes/ walk to school/ yesterday?

-> …………………………………………………………………………………………….


III. Write an essay (about 180 words) about the person you love most of all: (3.0 pts)

(The essay must have a title and three parts: Opening – Body and Conclusion.

Don’t show your proper names/ school/ village…)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….……………………..

ĐÁP ÁN

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 7

NĂM HỌC: 2017 - 2018

MÔN: TIẾNG ANH

PART ONE: LISTENING Listen and fill in the gaps: (15 0.2 = 3.0 pts)

1. types

2. playground

3. parking

4. cafeteria

5. office

6. finish

7. teenagers

8. each

9. lunches

10. where

11. from

12. world

13. theater

14. building

15. land

­­

PART TWO: PHONETICS: (2.0 pts)

I. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently: (5 0.2=1.0 pt)

16. A. tables

17. C. Christmas

18. A. arrived

19. A. nervous

20. B. teenager


II. Choose the word whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others:

(5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

21. B. number

22. D. surgery

23. C. prefer

24. D. arrival

25. A. delicious


PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURES: (5.0 pts)

I. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences: (10 0.2 = 2.0 pts)

26. D. preferred

27. A. of/ to

28. B. to go

29. A. Yes, let’s

30. A. unhappy

31. A. addictive

32. A. how

33. C. Neither did I

34. C. How often

35. B. interested


II. Give the correct form of the words given to complete the sentences: (10 0.2 =2.0 pts)

36. carelessly

37. laziness

38. education

39. beautifully

40. unfriendly

41. differently

42. unuseful/

useless

43. portable

44. florist

45. activities


III. Supply the correct forms of the verbs in brackets: (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

46. breaking

47. to use

48. Take

49. Will ….be

50. playing


PART FOUR: READING COMPREHENSION: (5.0 pts)

I. Choose the word or phrase that best fits each gap of the passage: (10 0.2 = 2.0 pts)

51. A. was

52. C. of

53. B. leaving

54. A. wrote

55. D. much

56. C. made

57. A. lived

58. C. the

59. B. However

60. D. most



II. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space: (10 0.2 =2.0pts)

61. name

62. have

63. in

64. to

65. reading

66. who 

67. of

68. the

69. countries

70. of

III. Read the text then make questions and answer them: (5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

71. How many days a week does the North London Arts Cinema open?

-> It opens 7 days a week.

72. What is the title of film next week?

-> It is “Midnight Meeting”

73. How long does the film last?

-> It lasts two hours and fifteen minutes.

74. What does a student have to do if he wants the cheaper ticket?

-> He has to bring his student card.

75. How far is it from the nearest car park to the cinema?

-> It is just five – minute walk.


PART FIVE: WRITING: (5.0 pts)

I. Rewrite the sentences without changing the meaning: (5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

76. Did it take your father the whole morning to repair his car?

77. You had better not stay up too late. It's not good for your health.

78. Our newcomer were absent from our club last weekend.

79. The driving test was not so/ as difficult as my brother thought.

80. It is very difficult for me to learn Chinese.


II. Use the following words and phrases to write complete and meaningful sentences. Make all the necessary changes and additions if necessary. (5 0.2=1.0 pt)

81. The monitor always goes to class on time to be a good example for the class.

82. Lan went to the doctor yesterday because she had an awful stomachache.

83. Now, my parents are pleased with the improvement in my work.

84. Minh was absent from school last Monday because he was ill.

85. Did it take Hoa twenty minutes to walk to school yesterday?


III. Write an essay (about 180 words) about the person you love most of all: (3.0 pts)

(The essay must have a title and three parts: Opening – Body and Conclusion.

Don’t show your proper names/ school/ village…)

- The opening: The essay must write something relating to the topic “Who he/she love most; …”. (0.5pt)

- The body: Write that person's relation; his/her appearance/ characteristics/ good points/ the sentences must have connectors and link words... (2,0 pts)

- The conclusion: Write about the writers' ideas, feeling or thoughts about the person he/she loves (s). (0.5 pt)

* Note: The essay that has 3.0 points must have:

- Long enough (At least 150 words or maybe more).

- Correct vocabulary and structures.

- Don't tell the proper names (The school, the student's/ teacher’s name/ ...).



Ngoài Đề Thi Học Sinh Giỏi Tiếng Anh Lớp 7 Huyện Thanh Oai Có Đáp Án Và File Nghe – Đề số 1 thì các đề thi trong chương trình lớp 7 sẽ được cập nhật liên tục và nhanh nhất có thể sau khi kỳ thi diễn ra trên Danh mục Kho Đề Thi nhằm giúp các bạn đọc thuận tiện trong việc tra cứu và đối chiếu đáp án. Quý thầy cô và các bạn đọc có thể chia sẻ thêm những tài liệu học tập hữu ích đến địa chỉ email của chúng tôi, nhằm xây dựng nên kho đề thi phong phú, đa dạng cho các em học sinh tham khảo và rèn luyện.

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