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Bộ Đề Kiểm Tra 1 Tiết Tiếng Anh Lớp 11 Lần 2 Năm 2022

Bộ Đề Kiểm Tra 1 Tiết Tiếng Anh Lớp 11 Lần 2 Năm 2022 Có Đáp Án – Tiếng Anh 11 được Trang Tài Liệu sưu tầm với các thông tin mới nhất hiện nay. Đề thi này sẽ giúp các em học sinh ôn tập, củng cố kiến thức, rèn luyện kĩ năng làm bài. Cũng như hỗ trợ thầy cô trong quá trình giảng dạy. Hy vọng những tài liệu này sẽ giúp các em trong quá trình ôn luyện và đạt kết quả cao trong bài thi sắp tới.

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Bộ Đề Kiểm Tra 1 Tiết Tiếng Anh Lớp 11 Lần 2 Năm 2022

Dưới đây là bản đọc trực tuyến giúp thầy cô và các em học sinh có thể nghiên cứu Online hoặc bạn có thể tải miễn phí với phiên bản word để dễ dàng in ấn cũng như học tập Offline

ĐỀ 1


ĐỀ KIỂM TRA GIỮA HỌC KÌ 2 - NĂM HỌC 2021 –2022

MÔN TIẾNG ANH 11




Mark the letter A, B, C or D on the answersheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following sentences.

Question 1: A. energy B. supply C. dirty D. happy

Question 2: A. pear B. spear C. bear D. swear

Question 3: A. swing B. sweat C. swan D. answer

Question 4: A. needs B. meets C. skills D. loves

Question 5: A. watched B. forced C. worked D. solved

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 6: Hunting for meat and burning forests for soils __________ wildife.

A. protect B. conserve C. destroy D. survive

Question 7: I would like to send these letters ____________ air mail .

A. in B. with C. by D. over

Question 8: The government sent money and food to the people __________ houses were destroyed by the storm last week.

A. which B. that C. whom D. whose

Question 9: Human beings have great __________ on the rest of the world.

A. focus B. attention C. influence D. attraction

Question 10: He is the postman ___________ I got this letter.

A. from who B. to whom C. from whom D. with whom

Question 11: Coal, oil, and forests are the most important ___________ resources.

A. industrial B. agricultural C. natural D. national

Question 12: It's the best film ___________ has ever been made about madness.

A. which B. whom C. whose D. that


Question 13: Thanh Ba Post Office provides customers ____________ the Messenger Call Services.

A. with B. for C. of D. to

Question 14: The energy ____________ by the windmill drives all the drainage pumps.

A. producing B. produced C. that is producing D. which produces

Question 15: The human race is only one small species in the living world. Many ___________ species exist on this planet.

A. the others B. others C. the other D. other

Question 16: We have stopped buying goods from that shop as most of them are __________ poor quality.

A. in B. under C. with D. on

Question 17: Being recognized in the street is part and ____________ of being a celebrity

A. packet B. parcel C. package D. post

Question 18: ____________ national parks all over the world have been established to protect endangered animals.

A. Thousand B. Thousands C. Thousands of D. Thousand of

Question 19: We are proud of our _________ staff, who are always friendly and efficient.

A. well-appointed B. well-done C. well-behaved D. well-trained

Question 20: _________ is a great source of energy but very dangerous.

A. Solar energy B. Water power C. Nuclear power D. Wind energy

Question 21: The receptionist didn’t know ____________ whom the message was intended.

A. at B. with C. to D. for

Question 22: The sun, water and the wind are other __ sources of energy.

A. renewable B. reused C. alternative D. exhausted

Question 23: It __________ a lot of patience to be a nurse.

A. takes B. spends C. costs D. uses

Question 24: It is estimated that only 1,000 pandas remain in __________ wild.

A. a B. an C. no article D. the

Question 25: The situation of COVID-19 worldwide is still serious, ___________ ?

A. is not it B. isn’t it C. is it D. doesn’t it

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 26: Cindy wanted to drive her best friend to have dinner at an Italian restaurant but her car couldn't start. Therefore, she had to borrow one from Nancy.

- Cindy: "Would you mind lending me your car?"

- Nancy: " ____________ . "

A. Great B. Yes. Here it is C. Yes, let's D. No, not at all.

Question 27: Peter and John are in a café.

Peter: "What's your favourite pastime?"

John: " "

A. My past time is nice. B. Ok, I like it. C. I beg your pardon. D. I worked hard in the past.



Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction.

Question 28: Factories located on the coastline have released untreated pollution directly into the ocean.

A. located B. have released C. pollution D. directly

Question 29: Radio stations at which broadcast only news first appeared in the 1970s.

A. at which B. only news C. appeared D. the

Question 30: Reading books, listening to music and play sports are among the most popular leisure activities.

A. play B. are C. the D. leisure activities

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.

Question 31: If the world’s tropical forests continue to disappear at their present rate, many animal species will become extinct.

A. die for B. die from C. die of D. die out

Question 32: Oil spills are having a devastating effect on coral reefs in the ocean.

A. powerful B. significant C. disastrous D. detectable

Question 33: Newspapers and magazines are often delivered early in the morning.

A. offered B. given C. provided D.distributed

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to choose the word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

Human beings (34)__________ to protect only the beautiful and non-threatening parts of our environment. We tend to pay more (35)________ to animals on land than any other large sea animals. Environmentalists have not done much enough to help save the Pacific Ocean sharks (36)_________ population has decreased nearly to the point of extinction.

Sharks are among the oldest creatures on Earth, having survived in the seas for more than 350 million years. The fact that they have managed to live in the oceans for so many millions of years is enough proofs of their efficiency and adaptability to change environments.

It’s time (37)_________ human beings to begin considering the protection of sharks as (38)______ important part of a program for protection of our natural environment.

Question 34: A. seem B. make C. advise D. let

Question 35: A. pleasure B. attention C. notice D. fun

Question 36: A. that B. whom C. whose D. which

Question 37: A. for that B. when C. for which D. for

Question 38: A. No article B. an C. the D. a

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Energy is fundamental to human beings, especially to poor people – the one-third of humanity that does not have modern energy supplies like electricity or natural gas, with which their life could be improved.

Many people who live in countryside and mountainous areas have to gather fuel wood. This takes a lot of time. Moreover, it causes indoor air pollution because of heavy smoke. For many people living in rural areas in developing countries of the world, biogas is the large energy resources available and costs almost nothing. The main use of biogas is for cooking and heating, but it can also provide energy for public transport. As biogas is smoke-free, it helps solve the problem of indoor air pollution. Moreover, plant waste and animal manure cost almost nothing.

The tendency to use renewable energy sources in developing countries is on the increase when non-renewable ones are running out. In the near future, people in the developing countries may use wind or sea waves as the environment-friendly energy sources.

Question 39: What is the role of energy to human beings?

A. unimportant B. fundamental

C. unnecessary D. not very necessary

Question 40: What do poor people in countryside do to have energy?

A. They look for coal             B. They look for oil

C.  They gather fuel wood          D. They use gas cookers

Question 41: How long does it take to gather fuel wood in the countryside?

A. A lot of time B. Not much time

C. Very little time D. Half an hour a day

Question 42: According to the passage, what energy sources do poor people often use for fuel?

A.  oil     B. wood B. nuclear energy D. petrol

Question 43: According to the passage, what is the most awful effect of using fuel wood?

A. It may cause fire. B. It damages their houses.

C. It affects the local scenery. D. It causes indoor air pollution

Question 44: What is the main use of biogas?

A. It is used mainly for cooking and heating B. It is mainly used for lighting.

C. It is mainly used for operating. D. It is mainly used for producing in factories.

Question 45: Why, according to the passage, is biogas introduced to poor people?

A. Because it is easy to use

B. Because it is the largest energy resource available in the countryside and cheap

C. Because it is not harmful D. Because they like it

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 46: Romeo and Juliet is a famous play . Shakespeare wrote it in 1605 .

A. Romeo and Juliet is a famous play written by Shakespeare in 1605.

B. Romeo and Juliet, which is a famous play, was written by Shakespeare in 1605.

C. Romeo and Juliet is a famous play which was written by Shakespeare in 1605.

D. Romeo and Juliet, a famous play which was written by Shakespeare in 1605.

Question 47: Sue lives in this house. The house is opposite my house.

A. Sue lives in this house, which is opposite mine.

B. Sue lives in this house which is opposite mine.

C. Sue lives in this house, that is opposite mine.

D. Sue lives in this house, where is opposite mine.

Question 48: The boy is called Duncan. He sits next to me in class.

A. The boy whose is called Duncan sits next to me in class.

B. The boy who sits next to me in class is called Duncan.

C. The boy whom sits next to me in class is called Duncan.

D. The boy to whom he sits next is called Duncan.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 49: She had only just begun to speak when people started interrupting.

A. She hardly had begun to speak when people started interrupting.

B. Hardly she had begun to speak when people started interrupting.

C. Hardly had she begun to speak when people started interrupting.

D. She hadn’t begun to speak when people started interrupting.

Question 50: He admitted his failure and praised his opponent’s performance.

A. He both failed and praised his opponent’s performance.

B. He neither admitted his failure nor praised his opponent’s performance.

C. Not only did he fail but he also praised his opponent’s performance.

D. Admitting his failure, he praised his opponent’s performance.

ĐÁP ÁN

1

2

3

4

5

6

7

8

9

10

B

B

D

B

D

C

C

D

C

C

11

12

13

14

15

16

17

18

19

20

C

D

A

B

D

A

B

C

D

C

21

22

23

24

25

26

27

28

29

30

D

C

A

D

B

D

C

C

A

A

31

32

33

34

35

36

37

38

39

40

D

C

D

A

B

C

D

B

B

C

41

42

43

44

45

46

47

48

49

50

A

B

D

A

B

B

A

B

B

D



ĐỀ 2


ĐỀ KIỂM TRA GIỮA HỌC KÌ 2 - NĂM HỌC 2021 –2022

MÔN TIẾNG ANH 11




  1. PHẦN TRẮC NGHIỆM (7.0p)

LANGUAGE


Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions (0.5p).

Question 1. A. swallow B. sword C. swing D. swim

Question 2. A. capture B. land C. marathon D. parade


Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions (2.5p).

Question 3. ___________ is produced from the heat of the sun.

  1. Geothermal energy C. Nuclear energy

  2. Solar energy D. Water energy

Question 4. Do you still remember the day ________ you sent me that letter?

A. on when B. why C. on which D. where

Question 5. Have you ever met the man _________ over there?

A. stands B. is standing C. standing D. who he is standing

Question 6. The chemical _____from cars and factories make the air, water and soil dangerously dirty.

A. pollute B. polluted C. pollution D. pollutants

Question 7. Nowadays many rare animals are disappearing because human beings are interfering ____ the environment in which these animals live.

A. on B. to C. of D. with

Question 8. Only six _________ were played in the first Asian Games.

A. athletes B. coaches C. sports events D. spectators

Question 9. A clerk: "Good morning! __________________________"

Bob: "I want to have a telephone line installed at home."

A. Can I help you? C. Excuse me!

B. May I come in? D. Where do you live?

Question 10. We are proud of our ______ staff, who are always friendly and courteous to customers.

A. well-appointed B. well-done C. well-trained D. well-behaved

Question 11. Thousands of national parks have been _________ to protect endangered animals.

A. put on B. turned off C. given up D. set up

Question 12. Hung: “Thank you very much for a lovely party.”

Hoa: “_______. ”

A. You are welcome C. Thanks

B. Have a good day D. Cheers

WRITING


Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to show the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions (1.0p).

Question 13. In an essay writing in 1779, Judith Sargeant Murray promoted the cause of women's education. A B C

D

Question 14. The song to whom we listened last night was interesting.

A B C D

Question 15. The waiter who serves us yesterday was polite and friendly.

A B C D

Question 16. Linh passed the exam with flying color, that made her parents happy.

A B C D

READING


Read the passage and choose the correct option for each blank (1.5p).

Up to now, Thailand has been the host country of the Asian Games four times. In 1966, Thailand (17) ________the Games for the first time. It was the 5th Games with 18 countries (18) _______. In 1970, South Korean dropped its plan to host the games (19) _________ security threats from North Korea, and the previous host Thailand administered the Games in Bangkok using the funds of South Korea. In 1978, Pakistan dropped its plan to host the Game due to conflicts (20) ________ Bangladesh and India. Thailand (21) ________ to help and the Games were held in Bangkok. The 13th Asian Games was held in Bangkok, Thailand from 6th to 20th December, 1998. This is (22) _________ largest Asian Games held in this millennium, with 9,469 athletes and officials from over 41 countries participating. The Games went smoothly without any problems in the spirit of the motto: “Friendship Beyond Frontiers”. This is also the last Asian Games to be hosted this century.


Question 17.

A. has held

B. hold

C. held

D. will hold

Question 18.

A. compete

B. to compete

C. competed

D. competing

Question 19.

A. as

B. due to

C. because

D. despite

Question 20.

A. on

B. of

C. with

D. to

Question 21.

A. offered

B. advised

C. suggested

D. made

Question 22.

A. Ø

B. an

C. a

D. the


Read the following passage and then choose the correct answer A, B, C or D (1.5p).

One of the most urgent environment problems in the world today is the shortage of clean water. Having clean drinking water is a basic human right. But acid rain, industrial pollution and garbage have made many sources of water undrinkable. Lakes and even entire seas have become vast pools of poison. Lake Baikal in Russia is one of largest lake in the world. It contains a rich variety of animals and plants, including 1,300 rare species that do not exist anywhere else in the world. But they are being destroyed by the massive volumes of industrial pollutants which pour into the lake every day. Even where law existed, the government did not have the power to enforce them.

Most industries simply ignore the regulations. The Mediterranean Sea occupies 1% of the world's water surface. But it is the dumping ground for 50% of all marine pollution. Almost sixteen countries regularly throw industrial wastes a few miles off shore.

Water is free to everyone. A few years ago people thought that the supply of clean water in the world was limitless. Today, many water supplies have been ruined by pollution and sewage. Clean water is now scarce, and we are at last beginning to respect this precious source. We should do something now.

Question 23.   Many sources of water are not drinkable because of_________.

A. industrial pollution     B. acid rain

B. acid rain, industrial pollution and garbage D. garbage

Question 24. The word “they” in paragraph 1 refers to ____________.

A. industrial pollutants B. animals C. plants D. animals and plants

Question 25.  What is a serious problem of Lake Baikal in Russia?

A. The government did not have the power to enforce laws and regulations.

B. It contains a rich variety of animals and plants.

C. It is polluted by massive volumes of industrial wastes discharged into it.

D. It has 1,300 rare species that do not exist anywhere else in the world.

Question 26.  How many percent of the world's water surface does the Mediterranean Sea keep?

A. 1% B. 5% C. 10% D. 50%

Question 27. The word sewage in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ___________.

A. freshness B. excess C. poison D. rubbish

Question 28.  The passage’s message to the readers is that we should _____________.

A. encourage people to use safe water C. limit the clean water in the world

B. do something to protect our water resources D. use a lot of clean water



B. PHẦN TỰ LUẬN (3.0p)


VOCABULARY

Give the correct form of the word in brackets to complete each of the following sentences (0.5p).

Question 29. People shouldn’t keep animals for (recreate) _______ and entertainment.

Question 30. Solar energy is not only (plenty) ________ and infinite but also clean and safe.


WRITING


Combine each pair of sentences, using suitable RELATIVE PRONOUNS (0.5p).


Question 31: They have just met to Mr. John Davinson. He is a famous teacher.

__________________________________________.

Question 32: The book was very interesting. You borrowed it two weeks ago.

__________________________________________.


Rewrite the following sentences, using PARTICIPLE or TO INFINITIVE (0.5p).


Question 33: The guitar which was bought 30 years ago is still new now.

__________________________________________.

Question 34: Linda was the second student who answered this question correctly.

__________________________________________.



Write a description paragraph of Ba Vi National Park, using the following prompts (1.5p).


Ba Vi National Park/ situated/ Ba Vi district/ 50 km/ Ha Noi City.


It/ cover/ an area of 10.814,6 ha.


Ba Vi/ characterised by/ biodiversity/ tropical forest/ abundant natural resources.


It/ be/ also famous for/ Saola/ several new species of deer and antelope/ other rare animals and plants.


Ba Vi/ preserve/ 70 species of animals/ 187 kinds of birds/ 56 sorts of fish/ 38 species of reptiles.


Visitors/ come here/ see / many wonderful landscapes.



____________ THE END ___________


ĐỀ 3


ĐỀ KIỂM TRA GIỮA HỌC KÌ 2 - NĂM HỌC 2021 –2022

MÔN TIẾNG ANH 11



A. MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS(20 sentences / 5.0 marks)

Circle the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1: A. ago                 B. across                      C. about                      D. adult

Question 2: A. French            B. school                     C. mechanic                D. chemistry

Circle the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3: A. awareness       B. billion                     C. protection               D. society

Question 4: A. apply              B. differ                      C. decide                     D. protect

Circle the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word/phrase that has the closest meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.

Question 5: It is mandatory for blood banks to test all donated blood for the virus.

A. factory                                B. compulsory             C. possible                   D. successful

Question 6: Land erosion is mainly caused by widespread deforestation.

A. afforestation                       B. reforestation           C. logging                   D. lawn mowing

Circle the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer that best completes sentence in each of the following questions.

Question 7: Tom suggested ________ out for dinner.

A. having gone                        B. to go                       C. going                      D.go

Question 8: ________  the photograph of the modern architecture of the mansion, I had no desire to go there.

A. To see                     B. Seeing                     C. Having seen                        D. Being seen

Question  9: In Vietnam a school year lasts for nine months and is divided ________ two terms.

A. into                         B. to                            C. from                                    D. on

Question 10: Academic courses should teach practical skills ___________addition to critical thinking.

A. into                         B. to                            C. from                                    D. in

Question 11: All of the disasters resulted from ________ will continue to have a devastating effect on socio-economic development.

A. ecological balance              B. carbon footprint     C. floods                     D. climate change

Question 12: It is not easy at all to get a good job without any ________ qualifications.

A. academic                B. social                      C. great                                   D. favourite

Question 13: About one third of high school ________ who proceed directly to higher education enter community colleges.

A. quitters                   B. experts                    C. graduates                            D. teachers

Question 14: Tree plantation helps to reduce global warming since trees ________  CO2 in the air.

A. absorb                     B. emit                         C. release                                 D. pollute

Question 15: Bachelor's ________ include Bachelor of Arts (B.A.) and Bachelor of Science (B.SC.)

A. degrees                   B. agrees                     C. downturns                          D. achievement

Question 16: The heavy rain has caused ________ in many parts of the country.

A. food                       B. drought                   C. famine                                D. floods

Question 17: Online ________ education has made it easier than ever for students to learn various trade skills and soft skills from established professionals in the industry.

A. vocation                 B. vocational               C. vocationally                        D. vocations

Question 18: So far I ________ any of the exams at school.

A. haven't been failing            B. hadn't failed           C. didn't fail                D. haven't failed

Circle the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 19: I started the course two weeks ago, but I have already been passing most of the tests.

A. started                    B. ago              C. have already been passing              D. of the tests                                              

Question 20: These companies were accused on having released a large amount of carbon dioxide into the atmosphere.                                                                                                                                       

A. These company      B. accused on              C. having released                   D. into the atmosphere

B. RESPONSE QUESTIONS (10 sentences / 5.0 marks)

I. Put the verbs in brackets in the present perfect or the present perfect continuous tense. (1.0 mark)

Question 21: He has lost  his books. He (look) have been looking for them all afternoon, but they (not turn up) haven’t turned up yet.

Question 22: The phone (ring) has been ringing for 2 minutes, but I (not answer) haven’t answered it yet.

II. Read the text below and answer the following questions. (2.0 marks)

Higher Education in Germany

There are currently 397 universities in Germany with a combined student population of approximately 2.8 million. Of these, 115 are universities or similar institutions; 217 are universities of applied sciences; 57 are colleges of art or music; and 8 do not belong to any of these three categories.

Higher Education Institutions are either state or state-recognized institutions. In their operations, including the organization of studies and the designation and award of degrees, they are both subject to higher education legislation.

Universities including various specialized institutions, offer the whole range of academic disciplines. In the German tradition, universities focus in particular on basic research so that advanced stages of study have mainly theoretical orientation and research-oriented components. Universities have the right to confer doctoral degrees and cater for the education and training of the next generation of academics.

Universities of applied sciences concentrate their study programmes in engineering and other technical disciplines, business-related studies, social work, and design areas. The common mission of applied research and development implies a distinct application-oriented focus and professional character of studies, which include integrated and supervised work assignments in industry, enterprises or other relevant institutions. Almost a third of students attend universities of applied sciences.

Question 23: How many  universities  of applied sciences are there in Germany ?

→ There are 217  universities of applied sciences.

Question 24: Do  Higher Education Institutions  consist of  both state and state-recognized institutions?

→ Yes, they do.

Question 25: What study programmes do universities of applied sciences offer?

→ They offer engineering and other technical disciplines, business-related studies, social work, and design areas.

Question 26: In the German tradition, why  do  advanced stages of study  have mainly theoretical orientation and research-oriented components?

Because universities focus in particular on basic research.

III. Rewrite the sentences, using Perfect Participles/ Perfect Gerunds. (1.0 mark)

Question 27: After I finished all my homework, I watched my favorite film on TV.

→  Having finished all my homework, I watched my favorite film on TV.

Question 28: The factory has dumped a huge amount of rubbish into the river. It was fined for that.

→ The factory was fined for having dumped a huge amount of rubbish into the river.

II.  Rewrite the sentences, using the words given and the Present Perfect or Present Perfect Continuous tense. (1.0 mark)
Question 29: Nam's still studying English. He started studying it two years ago. (for)

Nam has been studying English for two years.

Question 30: The graduate students started arriving at four o'clock. They are in the lecture hall. (since)

The graduate students have all arrived at the lecture hall.

THE END

ĐÁP ÁN

1

2

3

4

5

6

7

8

9

10

D

A

B

B

B

C

C

C

A

D

11

12

13

14

15

16

17

18

19

20

D

A

C

A

A

D

B

D

C

B

21

22

23

24

25

26

27

28

29

30



ĐỀ 4


ĐỀ KIỂM TRA GIỮA HỌC KÌ 2 - NĂM HỌC 2021 –2022

MÔN TIẾNG ANH 11




A. MULTIPLE CHOICE

I. PRONUNCIATION

Choose the word whose underlined part pronounced differently from the rest.

1. A. equipped

B. delivered


C. transferred

D. received

2. A. helps

B. provides


C. documents

D. texts

3. A. parks

B. animals


C. planets

D. environments

II. VOCABULARY

Circle the letter before the word that can be best replaced with the word(s) in italic.

4. Thanh Ba Post Office is equipped with advanced technology.

A. modern B. outdated C. fashionable D. beautiful

5. Thanh Ba Post Office has a spacious and pleasant front office.

A. cramped B. large and with a lot of space C. narrow D. safe

6. Our post office offers the best services with a well-trained staff.

A. rule B. impolite C. beautiful D. qualified

7. Express Money Transfer is a speedy and secure service for transferring money in less than 24 hours.

A. fast and fixed B. fast and protected

C. slow and safe D. useful and confident

8. Laws have been introduced to prohibit the killing of endangered animals.

A. advised B. decreased C. ban D. encouraged

9. Hunting for meat and burning forests for soils wildlife

A. protect B. conserve C. destroy D. survive

10. Many organizations have been set up and funds have been raised.

A. established B. collapsed C. delayed D. decreased

11. Because of people’s _____with the environment, many kinds of plants and animals are becoming rare.

A. supply B. survival C. influence D. interference

12. Garbage is considered to be some kind of ______.

A. pollute B. pollutants C. pollution D. polluting

13. The ____ is the air, water and land in or on which people, animals and plants live.

A. consequence B. environment C. planet D. resource

14. Can you turn the lights off before leaving the room?” – “______”

A. Yes, I canB. No, I can’t C. Yes, of course D. No, I don’t.

15. “ ________ ! Can you help me with this?”

A. Sorry B. Excuse me C. Pardon D. My apology

16. The knife ________ we are cutting bread is very sharp.

A. with that B. which C. with which D. that

17. Cathy is trustworthy. She’s a person upon _________ you can always depend.

A. who B. whom C. that D. X

18. The man ____ I introduced you to last night may be the next president of the university.

A. whom B. that C. X D. all are correct.

19. Your career should focus on a field _________ you are generally interested.

A. on which B. in which C. which D. that

20. One of the people _________ I admire most in the history of the world is Gandhi.

A. that B. which C. whose D. of them

21. The speech _______ we listened last night was informative.

A. to which B. which to C. to that D. that

C hoose the underlined part among A, B, C or D that needs correcting.

22. The man whom remained in the office was the manager.

A B C D

23. Mr. Brown, that teaches me English, is coming today.

A B C D

24. The car who I bought used to be my father’s.

A B C D

C hoose the correct answer

25. The man is my teacher. I am grateful to him.

A. The man whom I am grateful to him is my teacher.

C. The man is my teacher who I am grateful

B. The man whom I am grateful to is my teacher

D. The man to him I am grateful is my teacher.

26. Ngoc is friendly. We are talking about her.

A. Ngoc, we are talking about, is friendly.

C. Ngoc, about her we are talking, is friendly.

B. Ngoc, whom we are talking about is friendly.

D. Ngoc, about whom we are talking, is friendly.

27. That is the student. I borrowed his book last week.

A. That is the student I borrowed whose book last week.

B. The student whose book I borrowed that is.

C. That is the student, whose book I borrowed last week.

D. That is the student whose book I borrowed last week.

28. The book is very expensive. My father is interested in it.

A. The book in which my father is interested is very expensive.

B. The book which in my father is interested is very expensive.

C. The book which my father is interested is very expensive.

1. The teacher is Mr. Pike. We studied with him last year.

The teacher ___________________________________

2. The problem has been discussed in class. We are very interested in it.

The problem ___________________________________

3. I like standing at the window. I can see the park from this window.

I like ___________________________________

4. The woman lives next door to me. You gave place to her on the bus.

The woman ___________________________________

5. The examination lasted two days. I was successful in this examination.

The examination ___________________________________

6. The children are orphans. She is taking care of these children.

The children ___________________________________

7. The two young men are not good persons. You are acquainted with them.

8. The two young men ___________________________________

9. This is the result of our work. I’m pleased with it.

This is ___________________________________

9. There is a “No Parking” sign. I do not take notice of it.

10. There is ___________________________________

11. Mr. Brown is the man. I’m responsible to him for my work.

Mr. Brown ___________________________________

_________THE END_____________



ĐỀ 5


ĐỀ KIỂM TRA GIỮA HỌC KÌ 2 - NĂM HỌC 2021 –2022

MÔN TIẾNG ANH 11




Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest.

Question 1. A. books B. ships C. laughs


D. kisses

Question 2. A. inspired B. sacred C. needed


D. planted

Question 3. A. weeks B. ships C. laughs


D. nods

Question 4. A. locked B. sacred C. needed

Choose the best to complete the sentnces:

Question 5. He is the singer ____ I often tell you.


D. planted

A. in whom B. at whom C. about whom


D. whom

Question 6.I met the boy_______________is the president of the corporation.

A.whose father B.who’s father C.father of whom D.of whom father

Question 7. “ ________ ! Can you help me with this?”

A. Sorry B. Excuse me C. Pardon D. My apology

Question 8. Thanh Ba Post Office has a spacious and pleasant front office.

A. cramped B. large and with a lot of space C. narrow D. safe

Question 9. Laws have been introduced to prohibit the killing of endangered animals.

A. advised B. decreased C. ban D. encouraged

Question 10. The number of rare animals is deereasing rapidly .

A. dangerously B. quickly C. mostly D. gradually

Question 11. The chemical ____ from cars and factories make the air, water and soil dangerously dirty.

A. polluted B. pollution C. pollute D. pollutants

Question 12. What’s the name of the man ………… car you borrowed?

A. that B. who C. whom D. whose

Question 13.I like the village ____ I used to live.

A. in that B. in where C. which D. in which

Question 14. My brother, _______ knows a lot about this sort of thing, told me about what I should do.

A. that B. where C. who D. whose

Question 15. I know the man…………………………….bicycle was stolen.

A. that B. whom C. who D. whose

Question 16. She is the woman about……………………I told you.

A. whom B. which C. that D. who

Question 17. The music to…………………………………….we listened last night was good.

A. that B. whom C. where D. which

Choose the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction.

Question 18. The professor which course I am taking was excellent.

A. the B. which C. taking D. excellent

Question 19. Professor Wilson, that teaches chemistry, is an excellent lecturer.

A. that B. taches C. an D. lecturer

Question 20. The beach on where we used to lie for sunbathing is very nice and clean.

A.. where B. to lie C. sunbathing D. is

Choose the best option to complete the following passage.

In spite of all warnings, we are still not looking after our planet. Look what is happening to our forests. We are cutting them ___ (21 at an alarming rate. If we keep on doing this, many animals and plants will ___(22) extinct. Rare ___(23) , such as the mountain gorilla, are already in danger . More will follow. Forests are important for another reason, too. They help to slow the rate of global warming. Trees soak up gases like carbon dioxide, which are given ___ (24) by power stations and factories.

They also produce oxygen, and act as the lungs of the world.

Question 21. A. up B. in C. off D. down

Question 22. A. go B. get C. become D. result

Question 23. A. species B. tribes C. races D. specialities

Question 24. A. off B. up C. out D. Over

Read the passage and choose the best answer to complete each of the sentences.

Energy is fundamental to human beings, especially to poor people – the one- third of humanity that does not have modern energy supplies like electricity, with which their life could be improve. Many people who live in countryside have to gather fuel wood. This takes a lot of time. Moreover, it causes indoor air pollution because of heavy smoke. For many people living in rural areas in developing countries of the world, biogas is the large energy resources available and costs almost nothing. The main use of biogas is for cooking and heating. As biogas is smoke-free, it helps solve the problem of indoor air pollution. Moreover, plant waste and animal manure cost almost nothing. The tendency to use renewable energy sources is on the increase when non-renewable ones are running out. In the near, people in the developing countries may use wind or sea waves as the environment-friendly energy sources.

Question 25. How long does it take to gather fuel wood in the countryside?

A. Very little time B. Half an hour a day C. A lot of time D. Not much time

Question 26. Why is biogas introduced to poor people?

A. Because it is not harmful.

B. Because it causes indoor air pollution.

C. Because it is the largest energy resources available in the countryside and cheap.

D. Because it is easy to use.

Question 27. According to the passage, what is the most awful effect of using fuel wood?

A. It affects the local scenery. B. It may cause fire.

C. It damages their houses. D. It causes indoor air pollution.

Question 28. What is the main use of biogas?

A. It is mainly used for lighting. B. It is mainly used for operating.

C. It is used mainly for cooking and heating. D. It is mainly used for producing in factories.

B. WRITING.

Part1: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as sentence printed before it.

Question 29 . The book is very interesting. It was written by Jane Austen

The book ____________________________________________________

Question 30. Who is the woman? Our teacher is talking to her.(Use a relative pronoun)

Who is…………………………………………………………………………..

Question 31.This is the result of our work. I’m pleased with it.(Use the relative pronoun + prep)

Question 32. This is 4. The woman teaches me English. I am telling you about her.

The woman about ___________________________________________________

Part 2: Use the words or phrases below to write a complete sentence.

Question 33. The song/to/which/ we/listen/last night/ be / interesting.

________________________________________________________________

Question 34. I/met/ Jane’s father/work/ the university.

________________________________________________________________



___________THE END___________

Ngoài Bộ Đề Kiểm Tra 1 Tiết Tiếng Anh Lớp 11 Lần 2 Năm 2022 Có Đáp Án – Tiếng Anh 11 thì các đề thi trong chương trình lớp 11 sẽ được cập nhật liên tục và nhanh nhất có thể sau khi kỳ thi diễn ra trên Danh mục Kho Đề Thi nhằm giúp các bạn đọc thuận tiện trong việc tra cứu và đối chiếu đáp án. Quý thầy cô và các bạn đọc có thể chia sẻ thêm những tài liệu học tập hữu ích đến địa chỉ email của chúng tôi, nhằm xây dựng nên kho đề thi phong phú, đa dạng cho các em học sinh tham khảo và rèn luyện.

Bộ Đề Kiểm Tra 1 Tiết Tiếng Anh Lớp 11 Lần 2 Năm 2022 là một tài liệu hữu ích để học sinh lớp 11 ôn tập và kiểm tra kiến thức Tiếng Anh của mình. Bộ đề này được thiết kế dựa trên chương trình học và kiến thức của lớp 11, nhằm giúp học sinh rèn luyện và cải thiện kỹ năng ngôn ngữ, từ vựng, ngữ pháp và đọc hiểu.

Dưới đây là một số thông tin về bộ đề kiểm tra này:

  1. Cấu trúc đề thi: Bộ đề kiểm tra gồm nhiều phần như đọc hiểu, ngữ pháp, từ vựng và viết. Mỗi phần được thiết kế để đánh giá khả năng của học sinh trong từng kỹ năng cụ thể.
  2. Nội dung phù hợp: Các đề thi được lựa chọn và biên soạn theo các chủ đề phổ biến trong chương trình học Tiếng Anh lớp 11. Điều này giúp học sinh áp dụng kiến thức đã học vào thực tế và nắm vững các kiến thức cơ bản.
  3. Độ khó phù hợp: Các câu hỏi trong đề thi được thiết kế với độ khó từ dễ đến khó, nhằm đánh giá và mở rộng kiến thức của học sinh. Điều này giúp học sinh nắm vững cơ bản và phát triển kỹ năng Tiếng Anh của mình.
  4. Đáp án chi tiết: Bộ đề cung cấp đáp án và giải chi tiết cho mỗi câu hỏi. Điều này giúp học sinh tự kiểm tra và cải thiện kết quả của mình, hiểu rõ hơn về các lỗi và khuyết điểm trong kiến thức Tiếng Anh của mình.

Bộ Đề Kiểm Tra 1 Tiết Tiếng Anh Lớp 11 Lần 2 Năm 2022 là một tài liệu hữu ích để học sinh lớp 11 ôn tập và kiểm tra kiến thức Tiếng Anh của mình. Việc làm và kiểm tra đáp án giúp học sinh tự tin hơn khi đối mặt với kỳ thi và đạt kết quả tốt trong học tập.

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