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Đề Thi HSG Anh 9 Sở GD&ĐT Quảng Nam 2020-2021 Có Đáp Án

>>> Mọi người cũng quan tâm:

Bồi Dưỡng Học Sinh Giỏi Vật Lý 9: Phần Công-Công Suất-Định Luật Về Công
Bài Tập Trắc Nghiệm Địa 9 Bài 23: Vùng Bắc Trung Bộ Có Đáp Án
Ma Trận Đề Thi Giữa Kì 1 Anh 9 Chương Trình 10 Năm (2 Kỹ Năng) Năm 2021
Bồi Dưỡng Học Sinh Giỏi Vật Lý 9 – Chuyển Động Cơ Học-Vận Tốc
Bài Tập Trắc Nghiệm Địa Lí 9 Bài 21: Vùng Đồng Bằng Sông Hồng

Đề Thi HSG Anh 9 Sở GD&ĐT Quảng Nam 2020-2021 Có Đáp Án – Tiếng Anh Lớp 9 là tài liệu học tập được Trang Tài Liệu biên soạn và sưu tầm từ những nguồn dữ liệu mới nhất hiện nay. Tài liệu này sẽ giúp các em luyện tập, củng cố kiến thức từ đó nâng cao điểm số cho môn học. Ngoài ra, cũng giúp các thầy cô giáo có nguồn tài nguyên phong phú để giảng dạy.

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SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO

QUẢNG NAM


ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC

(Đề thi có 08 trang)

KỲ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 9 CẤP TỈNH

NĂM HỌC 2020 - 2021

Môn thi : Tiếng Anh

Thời gian: 150 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)

Ngày thi: 10/4/2021


SECTION I: LISTENING (4.0 pts)

Part 1. You are going to hear a person calling an accommodation agency about an apartment she wants to rent. Listen and complete the form. Write no more than TWO WORDS AND/ OR NUMBER for each answer. Write your answers in the Answer Sheets. (2.0 pts)

GOOD MOVES ACCOMMODATION AGENCY

Call taken by: Ben

Name: (1)……………………..

Telephone: (2)……………………..

Heard about us from: (3)……………………..

Type of accommodation preferred: (4)……………………..

Number of people: (5)……………………..

Preferred location: Want to be closed to (6)……………………..

Price: Maximum: (7) £…………………….. per person (including (8)……………………..)


Additional notes:

I suggested flat 3 at (9)…………………….. Road in Bampton.

I will send further details to customer by (10)……………………..

































Part 2. You are going to hear a conversation between Warren and Lindsay. Listen and answer questions by choosing the appropriate letter A, B, or C. Write your answers in the Answer Sheets. (1.0 pt)

11. Why did Lindsay want to be Wonder Woman? 

A. She can help people.
B. She liked Superman.

C. She is beautiful.

12. Why did Lindsay want to be a businesswoman? 

A. To have a big house.

B. To wear black suits.

C. To tell people what to do.

13. Why did Lindsay think a PR specialist would be the perfect job? 

A. She wanted to work with celebrities.
B. A friend could get her a job.
C. She liked planning parties.

14. What made Lindsay change her mind about being a PR specialist? 

A. She found a man and got married.

B. She stopped liking parties.
C. She wanted to help people.
15. What does she want to do in the future?

A. Have a lot of children.

B. Help homeless people.
C. Help homeless animals.

Part 3: You will hear a conversation between a man, Marcus and a woman, Cora, who work in the same office. Decide if each of the following statement is true (T) or false (F) according to what you hear. You will listen to the recording twice. Write your answers in the Answer Sheets. (1.0 pt)


T

F

16. Cora disagrees with Marcus about the cause of the traffic jams.



17. Marcus agrees that cycling to work would be good for him.



18. Marcus believes employers should provide buses.



19. Marcus agrees to try coming to work by bus tomorrow.



20. Cora suggests that Marcus is lazy.




SECTION II: LEXICO-GRAMMAR (6.0 pts)

Part 1. Choose the option (A, B, C or D) that best completes each of the following questions from 21 to 32. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. Write your answers in the Answer Sheets. (2.4 pts)

21. Don't speak so fast, please. I cannot keep _______ with you.

A. on B. away C. up D. out

22. If I had known how difficulty the job was, I _______ it.

A. won't have taken B. wouldn't take C. won't take D. wouldn't have taken

23. I didn’t see the whole occurrence. I just managed to catch a_______ of it.

A. glimpse B. look C. sight D. view

24. The more make-up she puts on, _______.

A. she looks less attractive B. less attractive does she look

C. the less attractive she looks D. the less she looks attractive

25. The passengers were asked to put on life belts for the_______ of their safety.

A. risk B. sake C. care D. point

26. No matter_______, Betty wouldn’t listen to him.

A. how hardly did Tom try to explain B. as how hard Tom tried explaining

C. if Tom tried to explain hardly D. how hard Tom tried to explain


27. All students went to the magic show, which we thought was really________.

A. amused B. amusing C. amusingly D. amuse

28. Last Sunday was ________ that we took a drive in the country.

A. so beautiful day B. such beautiful a day

C. such a beautiful weather D. so beautiful a day

29. The region is referred to as the “Land of Fruit” _______ it yields a bountiful harvest of oranges and apples.

A. such as B. so that C. because D. although

30. A new species of tomato ________ adapted to harsh climatic conditions has been developed.

A. that is B. which are C. who is D. what is

31. Laura starts a conversation with Maya- Jane’s sister.

Laura: “You must be Jane's sister. Glad to meet you.”

Maya:

A. I am, either. B. So I am. I'm glad. C. What do you do? D. Me too.

32. John: This grammar test is the hardest one we’ve ever had this semester!

Mary: _______ but I think it’s quite easy.

A. I couldn’t agree more B. I understand what you’re saying

C. You’re wrong D. I don’t see in that way


Part 2. For questions from 33 to 40, read the text below. Use the word given in capital at the end of some of the lines to form a word that fits in the gap in the same line. Write your answers in the Answer Sheets. (1.6 pts)


Traditionally, Australia was (33)_______  for producing wheat and wool, but times have changed in (34)_______ years, with many farmers (35) _______ to be more diverse in their crop and livestock range. It is now quite common to see farms with more exotic fruit and vegetables. Farmers are (36) _______ to sell their produce locally nowadays, but rather to the factories in the cities. As a result, farms are now large-scale (37)_______ where thousands of tones of crops are cultivated. Another aspect that is different nowadays is(38)_______  . In the past, farmers would just flood the fields but now it is common to see sprinkler(39)_______  everywhere. This means that more water is conserved, which has been helpful with the drought that has severely impacted the (40)_______  of the farms in the southern states of the country


FAME

RECENTLY

ELECT


LIKE


PRODUCE


IRRIGATE


SYSTEMATIC


MAJOR



Part 3. For questions from 41 to 46, read the text below. There are 6 mistakes in the passage. Write the mistakes and correct them in the space provided in the column on the right. Write your answers in the Answer Sheets. (1.2 pts)

Line

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

Have you ever tried a strawberry pizza? If you went to Oxnard, the "Strawberry Capital of California," in May, you could!

Oxnard is in Southern California and this part of the state takes its strawberries very serious. At the two-day California Strawberry Festival you can sample strawberries preparing in all sorts of ways. In addition to traditional treatment such as strawberry shortcake, strawberry jam, strawberry tarts and strawberries dipped into chocolate, there is strawberry pizza! This dessert pizza is topped with strawberries, sour cream, cream cheese and whipped cream on a sweetened bread baked like a pizza. Strawberry kabobs dipped in powdered sugar are another delicacy. And drinks like a strawberry smoothie can washed it all down.


Part 4 (0.8 pt):

a. For questions from 47 to 48, choose the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions. Write your answers in the Answer Sheets.

47. Father has lost his job, so we’ll have to tighten our belt to avoid getting into debt.

A. earn money B. save money C. sit still D. economize

48. Mary will be like a dog with two tails if she gets into the team.

A. very exhausted B. extremely pleased C. very proud D. extremely dazed

b. For questions from 49 to 50, choose the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions. Write your answers in the Answer Sheets.

49. Henry has found a temporary job in a factory.

A. eternal B. genuine C. permanent D. satisfactory

50. Not only my study but my hobbies also really keep me occupied every time.

A. worried B. relaxing C. busy D. free


SECTION III: READING (5.0 pts)

Part 1. For questions from 51 to 60, read the text below and decide which answer A, B, C, or D best fits each space. Write your answers in the Answer Sheets. (2.0 pts)

WALT DISNEY

There is no one who has not heard of Walt Disney. He is without doubt one of the most famous figures in the twentieth century and yet most people know hardly anything about him. (51) _____ he became one of the most successful men in history, he (52) _____ school at the age of sixteen and then studied art for a short time. By the (53) _____ year of the 20th century, he had already started to produce cartoons in Hollywood in (54) _____ with his brother Roy, who, for some reasons, never (55) _____ to become as famous as Walt Disney. Disney is perhaps most well-known on (56) _____ of his lovable cartoon character, Mickey Mouse, who first (57) _____ in 1928 in a film called Steamboat Willie. One of the most popular cartoon films of all time is Snow White and the Seven Dwarfs, which, when it was (58) _____ in 1937, was the first full-length cartoon in the history of the cinema.

By the 1950s, Walt Disney had become one of the world’s major (59) _____ of films for cinema and television. As Disney Productions grew, its founder retained complete artistic control of the films and he also (60) _____ on to publish books for children and cartoon strips in newspapers, featuring such characters as Donald Duck and Pluto the dog.
51. A. Despite B. In spite of C. Although D. Even

52. A. graduated B. completed C. failed D. left

53. A. primary B. early C. initial D. beginning

54. A. partnership B. friendship C. relationship D. already
55. A. managed B. succeeded C. reached D. achieved

56. A. case B. account C. view D. regard

57. A. appeared B. performed C. started D. began

58. A. seen B. released C. circulated D. advertised

59. A. businessman B. owners C. publishers D. producers
60. A. took B. put C. pushed D. went


Part 2. Read the passage and choose the correct answer A, B, C or D to each of the questions from 61 to 67. Write your answers in the Answer Sheets. (1.4 pts)

Niagara Falls, one of the most famous North American natural wonders, has long been a popular tourist destination. Tourists today flock to see the two falls that actually constitute Niagara Falls: the 173- foot- high Horseshoe Falls on the Canadian side of the Niagara River in the Canadian province of Ontario and the 182-foot-high American Falls on the U.S. side of the river in the state of New York. Approximately 85 percent of the water that goes over the falls actually goes over Horseshoe Falls, with the rest going over American Falls.

Most visitors come between April and October, and it is quite a popular activity to take a steamer out onto the river and right up to the base of the falls for a close-up view. It is also possible to get a spectacular view of the falls from the strategic locations along the Niagara River, such as Prospect Point of Table Rock, or from one of the four observation towers which have heights up to 500 feet.

Tourists have been visiting Niagara Falls in large numbers since the 1800's; annual visitation now averages above 10 million visitors per year. Because of concern that all these tourists would inadvertently destroy the natural beauty of this scenic wonder, the State of New York in 1885 created Niagara Falls Park in order to protect the land surrounding American Falls. A year later Canada created Queen Victoria Park on the Canadian side of the Niagara, around Horseshoe Falls. With the area surrounding the falls under the jurisdiction of government agencies, appropriate steps could be taken to preserve the pristine beauty of the area.

61. What is the major point that the author is making in this passage?

  1. Niagara Falls can be viewed from either the American side or the Canadian side.

  2. A trip to the United States isn’t complete without a visit to Niagara Falls.

  3. Niagara Falls has had an interesting history.

  4. It has been necessary to protect Niagara Falls from the many tourists who go there.

62. The word “flock” in paragraph 1 could best be replaced by .

  1. come by plane

  2. come in large number

  3. come out of boredom

  4. come without knowing what they will see

63. According to the passage, which of the following best describes Niagara Falls?

  1. Niagara Falls consists of two rivers, one Canadian and the other American.

  2. American Falls is considerably higher than Horseshoe Falls.

  3. The Niagara River has two falls, one in Canada and one in The United States.

  4. Although the Niagara River flows through the United States and Canada, the falls are only in the United States.

64. The expression “right up” in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by .

A. turn to the right B. follow correct procedures

C. travel upstream D. all the way up

65. The passage implies that tourists prefer to .

  1. visit Niagara Falls during warmer weather

  2. see the falls from a great distance

  3. take a ride over the falls

  4. come to Niagara Falls for a winter vacation.

66. According to the passage, why was Niagara Falls Park created?

  1. To encourage tourists to visit Niagara Falls

  2. To show off the natural beauty of Niagara Falls

  3. To protect the area around Niagara Falls

  4. To force Canada to open Queen Victoria Park

67. The paragraph following the passage most probably discusses .

  1. additional ways to observe the falls

  2. steps taken by government agencies to protect the falls

  3. a detailed description of the division of the falls between the United States and Canada

  4. further problems that are destroying the area around the falls


Part 3. For questions 68 – 75, fill each of the following numbered blanks with ONE suitable word. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided. Write your answers in the Answer Sheets. (1.6 pts)

The Maldives, a paradise with tropical beaches and pure white sand, attracts about 500,000 (68) _____ every year. But the natural beauty of this island nation may soon disappear.

The 1,100 islands that (69) _____ up the Maldives may disappear from the surface of the Earth in the next century because of global warming. (70) _____ to scientists, the sea levels will rise by about 60cm in the next one hundred years.

The islands are protected by coral reefs. The rise of the oceans, however, will lead to higher (71) _____ and destroy the reefs. As a result , more salt from the (72) _____ may spread to and destroy the ground and soil of the islands.

Global warming will also damage the fishing (73) _____ of the island. Plankton lives deeper when the water becomes warmer. So tuna fish, the most important type of fish, live in deeper areas too. That means they are much harder to catch.

Tourism in the Maldives is in (74) _____ , too. The white sandy beaches could disappear as fast as the reefs. People wouldn’t come to dive in the colorful water any more.

The island’s leaders are (75) _____ of the dangers. Plans are underway to find a new living area for the population. Finding a new homeland is not easy. One plan calls for the rescue of at least a few of the islands . It may be possible to make them higher.


SECTION IV: WRITING (5.0 pts)

Part 1. For questions 76 to 83, complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the sentence printed before it, begin with the given word(s) or phrase. Write your answers in the Answer Sheets. (1.6 pts)

76. As people use a lot of wood-pulp, many trees are cut down.

The more ________________________________________________________ .

77. Immediately after his arrival home, a water-heater exploded.

Hardly __________________________________________________________.

78. It was overeating that caused his heart attack.

If he ____________________________________________________________.

79. My bank manager and I get on together very well. 

I am on_________________________________________________________.

80. They could be arrested for not giving a breath sample to the police.

Refusal _________________________________________________________.

81. I thought about what had happened all those years before.

I cast _________________________________________________________.

82. What put me off the idea was simply how expensive it was going to be.

The sheer _______________________________________________________.

83. Scientists have tried very hard to find a cure for this disease.

Enormous _______________________________________________________.


Part 2. For questions 84 to 90, finish each of the following sentences so that it has a similar meaning to the sentences printed before it, using the word given. DON’T CHANGE THE WORD GIVEN. You must use between three and five words.Write your answers in the Answer Sheets. (1.4 pts)

84. I don’t think we need to mention that matter now (UP )

I don’t think we need to____________________________________ now.

85. That old typewriter is not worth repairing. (POINTLESS)

Repairing _________________________________________________.

86. The journalist pretended that she was a parent of one of the children. (FALSE)

The journalist ______________________ that she was a parent of one of the children.

87. Come on Thursday or Friday. It’s all the same to me. (DIFFERENCE)

Come on Thursday or Friday. It __________________________________ me.

88. I don’t think there will be any applicants for this post. (LIKELIHOOD)

There______________________________ there will be any applicants for this post.

89. I used to be familiar with every corner of this school. (HAND)

I used to know this school like ________________________________ .

90. She felt uncomfortable in the huge hotel. (FISH)

She felt like________________________________ in the huge hotel.


Part 3. Write an essay about 150 – 200 words on the following topic in the Answer Sheets: (2.0 pts)

More and more wild animals are on the verge of extinction and others are on the endangered list. What are the reasons for this? What can be done to solve the problem?


---------- HẾT ----------



Họ và tên thí sinh: ……………………………… Phòng thi: ……… Số báo danh: ……......


SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO

QUẢNG NAM

KỲ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 9 CẤP TỈNH

Năm học 2020-2021

HDC CHÍNH THỨC



(gồm có 03 trang)


HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM MÔN TIẾNG ANH



SECTION I: LISTENING(4.0 pts)


Part 1. You are going to hear a person calling an accomodation agency about an apartment she wants to rent. Listen and complete the form. Write no more than TWO WORDS AND/ OR NUMBER for each answer. (2.0 points)

Mỗi câu làm đúng đạt 0.2 đ


1. Clarice Willard

2. 0192 8734566

3. family member

4. flat/ apartment

5. 2/two

6. town centre

7. 350

8. bills

9. 57 Thorney Leys

10. email/ e-mail


Part 2. You are going to hear a conversation between Warren and Lindsay. Listen and answer questions by circling the appropriate letter A, B, or C. (1.0 point)

Mỗi câu làm đúng đạt 0.2 đ


11.A

12.B

13.A

14.C

15.C


Part 3. Listen to the recording and decide whether the following statements are True (T) or False (F).

Mỗi câu làm đúng đạt 0.2 đ

16. T

17. F

18. F

19. F

20. T

SECTION II: LEXICO-GRAMMAR (6.0 pts)

Part 1. Choose the option (A, B, C or D) that best completes each of the following questions from 21 to 32. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (2.4 pts)

Mỗi câu làm đúng đạt 0.2 đ


21. C

22. D

23. A

24. C

25. B

26. D

27. B

28. D

29. C

30. A

31. D

32. B



Part 2. For questions from 33 to 40, read the text below. Use the word given in capital at the end of some of the lines to form a word that fits in the gap in the same line. (1.6 pts)

Mỗi câu làm đúng đạt 0.2 đ


33. famous


34. recent


35. electing


36. unlikely

37. producers

38. irrigation


39. systems


40. majority


Part 3. For questions from 41 to 46, read the text below.There are 6 mistake in the passage. Underline the mistakes and write their correct forms in the space provided in the column on the right. (1.2 pts)



Line

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

Have you ever tried a strawberry pizza? If you went to Oxnard, the "Strawberry Capital of California," in May, you could!

Oxnard is in Southern California and this part of the state takes its strawberries very serious. At the two-day California Strawberry Festival you can sample strawberries preparing in all sorts of ways. In addition to traditional treatment such as strawberry shortcake, strawberry jam, strawberry tarts and strawberries dipped into chocolate, there is strawberry pizza! This dessert pizza is topped with strawberries, sour cream, cream cheese and whipped cream on a sweetened bread baked like a pizza.Strawberry kabobs dipped in powdered sugar are another delicacy. And drinks like a strawberry smoothie can washed it all down.

Mỗi câu làm đúng đạt 0.2 đ



Line

Mistake

Correction

41.

3

serious

seriously

42.

4

preparing

prepared

43.

4

treatment

treats

44.

5

into

in

45.

7

sweetened

sweet

46.

9

washed

wash


Part 4 (0.8pt): a. For questions from 47 to 48, Choose the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.

b. For questions from 49 to 50, Choose the word or phrase that is OPPOSITEin meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.


47.D

48.B

49.C

50.D


SECTION III: READING (5.0 pts)

Part 1. Read the text below and decide which answer A, B, C, or D best fits each space.(2.0 pts) Mỗi câu làm đúng đạt 0.2 đ


51.C

52.D

53.B

54.A

55.A

56.B

57.A

58.B

59.D

60.D



Part 2: Read the passage and choose the correct answer A, B, C or D to each of the questions from 61 to 67. (1.4 pts) Mỗi câu làm đúng đạt 0.2 đ

61.D

62.B

63.C

64.D

65.A

66.C

67.B


Part 3. For questions 68 – 75, fill each of the following numbered blanks with ONE suitable word. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.(1.6 pts)Mỗi câu làm đúng đạt 0.2 đ

68.tourists

69. make

70. According

71. waves

72. ocean

73. industry

74. danger

75.  aware








SECTION IV: WRITING (5.0 PTS)

Part 1:For questions 76 to 83, complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the sentence printed before it, begin with the given word(s) or phrase.

Mỗi câu làm đúng đạt 0.2 đ

76. The more wood-pulp is used, the more trees are cut down/

The more wood-pulp people use, the more trees are cut down

77. Hardly had he arrived home when a water-heater exploded.

78. If he hadn’t overeaten, he wouldn’t have had a heart attack.

79.I am on very good terms with my bank manager.

80. Refusal to give a breath sample (to the police) could lead their arrest/ being arrested.

81. I cast my mind back to what had happened all those years before.

82. The sheer expense was what put me off the idea.

83. Enormous efforts have been made by scientists to find a cure for this disease.

Part 2:For questions 84 to 90, finish each of the following sentences so that it has a similar meaning to the sentences printed before it, using the word given. DON’T CHANGE THE WORD GIVEN.(1.4pts)

84. I don’t think we need to bring that matter up now.

85. Repairing that old typewriter is pointless.

86. The journalist gave the false impression that she was a parent of one of the children.

87. Come on Thursday or Friday. It makes no difference to me.

88. There is little/no likelihood thatthere will be applicants for this post.

89. I used to know this school likethe back of my hand.

90. She felt like a fish out of water in the huge hotel.


Part 3. Write an essay about 150 – 200 words on the following topic: (2.0pts)

More and more wild animals are on the verge of extinction and others are on the endangered list. What are the reasons for this? What can be done to solve this problem?

Guide for marking:

Band 5: Those scored from 1.7 – 2.0 points should be as followings:

The writing fully achieves the desired effect on the reader. The use of language is confident with a varied range of structures and vocabulary. The ideas are linked with suitable linking devices. There may be some minor errors but these do not affect understanding.

Band 4: Those scored from 1.3 – 1.6 points should be as followings:

The writing achieves the desired effect on the reader. The use of language is confident with a range of structures and vocabulary. The ideas are somewhat linked with linking devices. There may be some errors but these do not affect understanding.

Band 4: Those scored 0.9 – 1.2 points should be as followings:

The writing may have problem in conveying the reader the content and message in order to achieve the desired effect. The use of language items like structures and vocabulary is quite limited. There may be some linking between sentences but this linking is not always maintained. A number of errors are present but most of these do not affect the general comprehension of the writing.

Band 2: Those scored from 0.5 – 0. 8 points should be as followings:

The writing struggles to achieve the desired goal set in the task. The use of language including vocabulary and structures is simple, limited and repetitive. There may be incomprehensible sentences and errors that prevent comprehension and communication. The reader has to work very hard to understand the writer’s ideas.

Band 1: Those scored from 0.1 – 0.4 points should be as followings:

The writing causes a negative effect on the reader. The use of language including vocabulary and structures is very simple, limited and repetitive. There may be many incomprehensible sentences and numerous errors that prevent comprehension and communication. The reader has to work very hard to understand the writer’s ideas.

A score of 0 will be given for those writings that have too little language for scoring, are illegible, have incomprehensible contents, or are irrelevant to the topic.

==================== The end ====================


Ngoài Đề Thi HSG Anh 9 Sở GD&ĐT Quảng Nam 2020-2021 Có Đáp Án – Tiếng Anh Lớp 9 thì các tài liệu học tập trong chương trình 9 sẽ được cập nhật liên tục và nhanh nhất có thể sau khi kỳ thi diễn ra trên Danh mục Tài Liệu Học Tập nhằm giúp các bạn đọc thuận tiện trong việc nghiên cứu tài liệu. Quý thày cô và các bạn đọc có thể chia sẻ thêm những tài liệu học tập hữu ích đến địa chỉ email của chúng tôi, nhằm xây dựng nên kho đề thi phong phú, đa dạng cho các em học sinh tham khảo và rèn luyện.

Bộ đề thi này bao gồm nhiều câu hỏi trắc nghiệm và tự luận, phục vụ cho việc ôn tập và rèn luyện kỹ năng Tiếng Anh một cách toàn diện. Tính đa dạng của câu hỏi và độ khó phù hợp đã được đảm bảo, giúp học sinh nắm vững kiến thức và củng cố các kỹ năng ngôn ngữ.

Đặc biệt, đáp án và lời giải chi tiết đi kèm với mỗi câu hỏi, giúp học sinh tự kiểm tra và tự đánh giá kết quả bài làm của mình. Điều này sẽ giúp bạn nắm vững điểm mạnh và yếu trong việc sử dụng ngữ pháp, từ vựng, đọc hiểu, viết và nói trong tiếng Anh.

Bộ đề thi Học sinh giỏi Anh 9 Sở GD&ĐT Quảng Nam 2020-2021 không chỉ là công cụ ôn tập hiệu quả, mà còn là cầu nối giúp học sinh làm quen với định dạng và cấu trúc đề thi thật. Hy vọng rằng, tài liệu này sẽ trở thành người bạn đồng hành đáng tin cậy của các bạn trong quá trình ôn tập và chuẩn bị cho kỳ thi quan trọng này.

Hãy cùng chúng tôi chuẩn bị tốt nhất cho kỳ thi Học sinh giỏi môn Tiếng Anh năm nay và cùng nhau chinh phục những thử thách trong hành trình học tập! Chúc các bạn thành công và tiến bộ trong việc học Tiếng Anh.

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