Đề Thi HSG Anh 12 Tỉnh Quảng Nam 2020 Có Đáp Án

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO QUẢNG NAM	KỲ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 12 THPT CẤP TỈNH Năm học: 2019 – 2020
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC (Đề thi gồm có 12 trang)	Môn thi : TIẾNG ANH Mã đề thi: 132 Thời gian : 90 phút (Không kể thời gian giao đề) Ngày thi : 10/6/2020

(Thí sinh làm bài trên Phiếu trả lời trắc nghiệm)

Họ và tên thí sinh:……………………………………….Phòng thi ………Số báo danh: ……

SECTION I: LISTENING

HƯỚNG DẪN PHẦN THI NGHE HIỂU

• Mỗi phần được nghe 2 lần, mở đầu và kết thúc mỗi phần có tín hiệu.

• Mọi hướng dẫn cho thí sinh (bằng tiếng Anh) đã có trong bài nghe.

Part 1: You will hear people talking in eight different situations. For questions 1- 8, mark the letter A, B, or C on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 1: You hear a mother talking about her baby. What has the baby just learnt to do?

A. count B. walk C. talk

Question 2: You hear a man buying some flowers. What colour does he buy?

A. red B. yellow C. white

Question 3: You hear a girl talking to her friend on the phone. What has happened?

A. She didn't remember to do her homework.

B. She left her homework at home.

C. She got bad marks for her homework.

Question 4: You hear a man talking to a vet. What is the problem with his dog?

A. She has become very aggressive.

B. She keeps biting her paw.

C. She doesn't walk properly.

Question 5: You hear a woman talking to a plumber. Where is the problem in her house?

A. the veranda B. the kitchen C. the bathroom

Question 6: You hear a man talking about a train journey. When did he travel?

A. Tuesday B. Wednesday C. Thursday

Question 7: You hear a boy telling his mother about a football match. How many goals did his team score?

A. two B. three C. one

Question 8: You hear a woman talking about going shopping. What did she buy?

A. a pair of shoes B. a pair of jeans C. a pair of glasses

Part 2: You will hear an interview with someone who has started a news service called “Children’s Express”. For questions 9-15 choose the best answer: A, B or C. You will hear the recording twice.

Question 9: The purpose of Children’s Express is to encourage children to:

A. Think in a more adult way.

B. Consider important matters.

C. Train as journalists.

Question 10: Bob says that the children who work on Children’s Express:

A. Are carefully chosen.

B. Learn from each other.

C. Get on well together.

Question 11: What success has Children’s Express had?

A. TV programmes have been made about it.

B. Adults read some of the articles it produces.

C. It has affected the opinions of some adults.

Question 12: What did the survey in the Indianapolis Star show about the page they write?

A. It is read by a lot of adults.

B. It is the most popular page in the newspaper.

C. It interests adults more than children.

Question 13: Important public figures agree to be interviewed by the children because:

A. Children’s Express has a good reputation.

B. They like the questions children ask.

C. They want children to like them.

Question 14: When an article is being prepared, the editors:

A. Help the reporters in the interviews.

B. Change what the reporters have written.

C. Talk to the reporters about the interview.

Question 15: What is unique about their type of journalism?

A. Nothing in their articles is invented.

B. Everything that is recorded appears in the articles.

C. It is particularly suitable for children.

SECTION II: LEXICO-GRAMMAR

Part 1: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions from 16 to 32.

Question 16: TikTok, also known as Douyin in China, is a social media app downloaded more than 2 billion times globally with a (an) ______ to creating and sharing videos.

A. aim B. view C. purpose D. plan

Question 17: ______ the invention of the steam engine, most forms of transport were horse-drawn.

A. With reference B. Akin C. Prior to D. In addition to

Question 18: ______ before, his first performance for the amateur dramatic group was a success.

A. Though having never acted B. Despite he had never acted

C. As he had never acted D. In spite of his never having acted

Question 19: Come by to my place so that we can have a chat about that, ______?

A. can’t we B. aren’t you C. shall we D. will you

Question 20: The coronavirus COVID-19 is affecting 213 countries and territories around the world and 2 international ______.

A. conveyors B. conveyancers C. conveyances D. coveyancing

Question 21: I am afraid a rise in salary is ______ just now.

A. out of sight B. out of control C. out of date D. out of question

Question 22: She is ______ her sister is.

A. nothing near as ambitious B. nowhere like so ambitious

C. nothing as ambitious than D. nowhere near as ambitious as

Question 23: The matter comes when a manager strays outside his area of _____.

A. knack B. skill C. expertise D. speciality

Question 24: It is estimated that she earned ______ her brother last year.

A. twice as much as B. twice more than

C. twice as many as D. twice as more as

Question 25: The man ______ of the murder hasn’t been brought to trial yet.

A. suspect B. having suspected

C. suspecting D. suspected

Question 26: I don’t think you have been watering the plants near the gate. The soil is ______.

A. as dry as rice B. as dry as a tile

C. as dry as a bone D. as dry as wood

Question 27: Because my little son couldn’t have his dream bike on his birthday, he was ______ disappointed.

A. bitterly B. desperately C. strictly D. severely

Question 28: ______ he was kidnapped by the Iraqi Guerrillas yesterday has been confirmed.

A. What B. If C. That D. Ø

Question 29: I utterly _______ your argument. In my opinion, you have distorted the facts.

A. confound B. refute C. dispute D. declined

Question 30: Turn off this machine, please. The harsh sound really ______ me crazy.

A. takes B. worries C. drives D. bothers

Question 31: People in financial difficulties sometimes fall _______to unscrupulous money lenders.

A. prey B. fool C. scapegoat D. sacrifice

Question 32: The police ______ a good deal of criticism over their handling of the demonstration.

A. came in for B. brought about C. back out D. back up

Part 2: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions from 33 to 34.

Question 33: Important features of dehydrated foods are their lightness in weight and their compactness.

A. organic B. dried C. frozen D. healthy

Question 34: We went away on holiday last week, but in rained day in day out.

A. every other day B. every single day

C. every second day D. every two days

Part 3: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions from 35 to 36.

Question 35: Digital clocks, however precise, they cannot be perfectly accurate

A B

because the earth’s rotation changes slightly over years.

C D

Question 36: Genetic engineering is helping researchers unravel the mysteries of

A

previously incurable diseases so that they get to its root causes and find cures.

B C D

Part 4: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges from 37 to 38.

Question 37: Jack failed the driving test again.

Jack: “Failed again, I’m afraid.”

You: “______”

A. Well, good luck. B. Oh, hard luck. C. Lucky you. D. I’m not sure.

Question 38: Two friends, Peter and Linda, are talking about pets.

Peter: “Well, cats are very good at catching mice around the house” Linda: “_______”

A. Nothing more to say. B. You can say that again.

C. Yes, I hope so. D. No, dogs are good, too.

Part 5: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions from 39 to 40.

Question 39: Hazardous waste is waste that has substantial or potential threats to public health or the environment.

A. vivid B. risky C. dangerous D. secure

Question 40: “What I’ve got to say to you now is strictly off the record and most certainly not for publication”, said the government officer to the reporter.

A. already official B. beside the point C. not popular D. not recorded

SECTION III: READING

Part 1: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 41 to 48.

ANIMAL WATCH: VOICE FROM THE WILD

Are you in favor of taking part in the battle to save the world's wildlife? Animal Watch is the book which will (41) ______ you in the fight for survival that faces many of our endangered animals and show how they struggle on the edge of extinction. As you enjoy the book's 250 pages and over 150 colour photographs, you will have the (42) ______ of knowing that part of your purchase money is being used to help animals (43) ______. From the comfort of your armchair, you will be able to observe the world's animals close-up and explore their habitats. You will also discover the terrible results of human (44) ______ for land, flesh and skins.

Animal Watch is packed with fascinating facts. Did you know that polar bears cover their black noses with their (45) ______ so they can hunt their prey in the snow without being seen, for example? Or that for each orangutan which is captured, one has to die?

This superb (46) ______ has so impressed Britain's leading wildlife charity that it has been chosen as Book of the Year, a title awarded to books which are considered to have made a major contribution to wildlife conservation. You will find Animal Watch at a special low (47) ______ price at all good bookshops, but hurry while (48) ______ last.

Question 41. A. combine B. involve C. bring D. lead

Question 42. A. satisfaction B. enjoyment C. virtue D. value

Question 43. A. preserve B. conserve C. revive D. survive

Question 44. A. greed B. interest C. care D. concern

Question 45. A. feet B. claws C. paws D. toes

Question 46. A. publicity B. periodical C. publication D. reference

Question 47. A. beginning B. preparatory C. original D. introductory

Question 48. A. stores B. stocks C. goods D. funds

Part 2: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 49 to 56.

The oceans are so vast and deep that until fairly recently, it was widely assumed that no matter how much trash and chemicals humans dumped into them, the effects would be negligible. Proponents of dumping in the oceans even had a catchphrase: "The solution to pollution is dilution”.

Today, we need look no further than the New Jersey-size dead zone that forms each summer in the Mississippi River Delta, or the thousand-mile-wide swath of decomposing plastic in the northern Pacific Ocean to see that this "dilution" policy has helped place a once flourishing ocean ecosystem on the brink of collapse.

There is evidence that the oceans have suffered at the hands of mankind for millennia. But recent studies show that degradation, particularly of shoreline areas, has accelerated dramatically in the past three centuries as industrial discharge and run-off from farms and coastal cities have increased.

Pollution is the introduction of harmful contaminants that are outside the norm for a given ecosystem. Common man-made pollutants reaching the oceans include pesticides, herbicides, chemical fertilizers, detergents, oil, sewage, plastics, and other solids. Many of these pollutants collect at the ocean's depths, where they are consumed by small marine organisms and introduced into the global food chain.

Many ocean pollutants are released into the environment far upstream from coastlines. Nitrogen-rich fertilizers applied by farmers inland, for example, end up in local streams, rivers, and groundwater and are eventually deposited in estuaries, bays, and deltas. These excess nutrients can spawn massive blooms of algae that rob the water of oxygen, leaving areas where little or no marine life can exist.

Solid wastes like bags, foam, and other items dumped into the oceans from land or by ships at sea are frequently consumed, with often fatal effects, by marine mammals, fish, and birds that mistake them for food. Discarded fishing nets drift for many years, ensnaring fish and mammals. In certain regions, ocean currents corral trillions of decomposing plastic items and other trash into gigantic, swirling garbage patches. One in the North Pacific, known as the Pacific Trash Vortex, is estimated to be the size of Texas.

Pollution is not always physical. In large bodies of water, sound waves can carry undiminished for miles. The increased presence of loud or persistent sounds from ships, sonar devices, oil rigs, and even from natural sources like earthquakes can disrupt the migration, communication, and reproduction patterns of many marine animals, particularly aquatic mammals like whales and dolphins.

(Source: http://www.oceannationalgeographic.com)

Question 49. What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. Marine pollution and its many forms.

B. Noise and its disruptive effects on marine life.

C. Various kinds of harmful pollutants.

D. The end of the "dilution" era.

Question 50. The word "negligible" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ____.

A. serious B. insignificant C. unpredictable D. positive

Question 51. It can be inferred from paragraph 2 that the "dilution" policy is related to _______.

A. dealing with the problems of water pollution

B. helping the ecosystem of the oceans flourish

C. neglecting the effects of dumping trash into the oceans

D. treating harmful materials in the oceans properly

Question 52. The word "they" in paragraph 4 refers to _______.

A. ocean's depths B. man-made pollutants

C. marine organisms D. the oceans

Question 53. The word "spawn" in paragraph 5 can be best replaced by _______.

A. appear B. prevent C. produce D. limit

Question 54. According to the passage, nitrogen-rich fertilizers _______.

A. are created by massive blooms of algae

B. cause a shortage of oxygen in the ocean water

C. do not relate to the disappearance of marine life

D. cannot be found inland

Question 55. Which of the following statements is NOT supported in the passage?

A. Many pollutants deposited in the oceans finally become part of the global food chain.

B. It is apparent that the oceans have been polluted for a long time.

C. Industrial wastes and agricultural run-off are blamed for the degradation of the oceans.

D. The oceans in the past were more contaminated than they are now.

Question 56. Whales and dolphins are mentioned in the final paragraph as an example of marine creatures that _______.

A. can communicate with each other via sound waves

B. can survive earthquakes because of their large bodies

C. suffer from loud or persistent sounds at sea

D. are forced to migrate because of water pollution

Part 3: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 57 to 64.

Salinity is the saltiness or amount of salt dissolved in a body of water. If the salinity of ocean waters is analyzed, it is found to vary only slightly from place to place. Nevertheless, some of these small changes are important. There are three basic processes that cause a change in oceanic salinity. One of these is the subtraction of water from the ocean by means of evaporation-conversion of liquid water to water vapor. In this manner, the salinity is increased, since the salts stay behind. If this is carried to the extreme, of course, white crystals of salt would be left behind. This, by the way, is how much of the table salt we use is actually obtained.

The opposite of evaporation is precipitation, such as rain, by which water is added to the ocean. Here the ocean is being diluted so that the salinity is decreased. This may occur in areas of high rainfall or in coastal regions where rivers flow into the ocean. Thus, salinity may be increased by the subtraction of water by evaporation, or decreased by the addition of fresh water by precipitation or run off.

Normally in tropical regions where the Sun is very strong, the ocean salinity is somewhat higher than it is in other parts of the world where there is not as much evaporation. Similarly, in coastal regions where rivers dilute the sea salinity is somewhat lower than in other oceanic areas.

A third process by which salinity may be altered is associated with the formation and melting of sea ice. When seawater is frozen, the dissolved materials are left behind. In this manner, seawater directly beneath freshly formed sea ice has a higher salinity than it did before the ice appeared. Of course, when this ice melts, it will tend to decrease the salinity of the surrounding water.

In the Weddell Sea, off Antarctica, the densest water in the oceans is formed as a result of this freezing process, which increases the salinity of cold water. This heavy water sinks and is found in the deeper portions of the oceans of the world.

(Source: Toefl Reading Comprehension 4)

Question 57. What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. The bodies of water of the world. B. The elements of salt.

C. The many forms of ocean life. D. The salinity of ocean water.

Question 58. According to the passage, the ocean generally has more salt in _____ .

A. coastal areas B. tropical areas C. rainy areas D. turbulent areas

Question 59. All of the following are processes that decrease salinity EXCEPT

A. evaporation B. precipitation C. run off D. melting

Question 60. Which of the following statements about the salinity of a body of water can best be inferred from the passage?

A. The temperature of the water is the most important factor.

B. How quickly the water moves is directly related to the amount of alt.

C. Ocean salinity has little effect on sea life.

D. Various factors combine to cause variations in the salt content of water.

Question 61. The word "it" in paragraph 4 refers to which of the following?

A. Sea ice B. Salinity C. Seawater D. Manner

Question 62. Why does the author mention the Weddell Sea?

A. To show that this body of water has salinity variations

B. To compare Antarctic waters with Arctic waters

C. To give an example of cold-water salinity

D. To point out the location of deep waters

Question 63. Which of the following is NOT a result of the formation of ocean ice?

A. The salt remains in the water B. The surrounding water sinks

C. Water salinity decreases D. The water becomes denser

Question 64. What can be inferred about the water near the bottom of oceans?

A. It is relatively warm. B. Its salinity is relatively high.

C. It does not move. D. It is formed by melting sea ice.

SECTION IV: WRITING

Part 1: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions from 65 to 72.

Question 65: Jimmy works so hard. I’m sure he’ll be promoted soon.

A. Only when I am sure he’ll be promoted soon does Jimmy work hard.

B. Were I not sure of his being promoted soon, Jimmy wouldn’t work so hard.

C. So hard is his work that I’m sure he’ll be promoted soon.

D. So hard does Jimmy work that I’m sure he’ll be promoted soon.

Question 66: The Prime Minister failed to explain the cause of the economic crisis. Furthermore, he did not offer any solutions.

A. Although the Prime Minister explained the cause of the economic crisis, he failed to offer any solutions.

B. Not only did the Prime Minister explain the cause of the economic crisis, but he also offered solutions.

C.The Prime Minister offered some solutions based on the explanation of the cause of the economic crisis.

D. The Prime Minister didn’t explain the cause of the economic crisis, nor did he offer any solutions.

Question 67 : You can eat the candy. Make sure you leave some for me.

A. You can eat the candy provided you leave some for me.

B. You can eat the candy unless you leave some for me.

C. You can’t eat the candy if you leave some for me.

D. You can’t eat the candy in case you leave some for me.

Question 68: The soccer team knew they lost the match. They soon started to blame each other.

A. Not only did the soccer team lose the match but they blamed each other as well.

B. No sooner had the soccer team started to blame each other than they knew they lost the match.

C. As soon as they blamed each other, the soccer team knew they lost the match.

D. Hardly had the soccer team known they lost the match when they started to blame each other.

Question 69: The plan is not excellent. Its early reveal spoils it.

A. The plan will be excellent provided it were revealed so early.

B. But for its early reveal, the plan wouldn’t be excellent.

C. The plan would be excellent unless it were revealed so early.

D. If the plan were revealed so early, it would be excellent.

Question 70: I did not read his book. I did not understand what the lecturer was saying.

A. What the lecturer wrote and said was too difficult for me to understand.

B. I found it very difficult to understand what the lecturer said in his book.

C. I would have understood what the lecturer was saying if I had read his book.

D. The lecturer's book which I had not read was difficult to understand.

Question 71: Hartford is the capital of Connecticut. It is the second largest city in the state.

A. The capital of Connecticut, Hartford which is the second largest city in the state.

B. Hartford, the capital of Connecticut, is the second largest city in the state.

C. Hartford, the second largest city in the state, which is the capital of Connecticut.

D. Hartford, the capital of Connecticut, that is the second largest city in the state.

Question 72: She tries to learn very hard. She will never beat Sue at tennis.

A. However hard she tries to learn, she will never beat Sue at tennis.

B. No matter how hardly she tries to learn, she will never beat Sue at tennis.

C. It doesn't matter how she tries hard, she will never beat Sue at tennis.

D. In spite of trying to learn very hard, she will beat Sue at tennis.

Part 2: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to the sentence given in each of the following questions from 73 to 80.

Question 73: The number of accidents has gone down steadily since the speed limit was imposed.

A. There has been a steady decline in the number of accidents since the speed limit was imposed.

B. It is the speed limit that reduce steadily the number of accidents.

C. The imposing of speed limit has resulted from the number of accidents.

D. There have been few accidents than before since they used the speed limit.

Question 74: The government does not know what to do with household rubbish in large cities.

A. Little does the government know what to do with household rubbish in large cities.

B. It is unknown what to do with household rubbish in large cities by the government

C. Rarely the government knows what to do with household rubbish in large cities.

D. Hardly any government knows what to do with household rubbish in large cities.

Question 75: At no time did the two sides look likely to reach an agreement.

A. The two sides had no time to reach an agreement.

B. The two sides never looked likely to reach an agreement.

C. If the two sides had had time, they would have reached an agreement.

D. The two sides never looked like each other.

Question 76: It’s compulsory for me to finish my work this evening.

A. I can finish my work this evening.

B. I must finish my work this evening.

C. I needn’t finish my work this evening.

D. I shouldn’t finish my work this evening.

Question 77: Rather than interrupt the conference, she left without saying goodbye.

A. She interrupted the conference because she said goodbye.

B. The conference was interrupted as she left saying goodbye.

C. She would rather interrupt the conference than leave without saying goodbye.

D. She left without saying goodbye as she didn't want to interrupt the conference.

Question 78: By being absent so often John failed the examination.

A. John’s frequent absences cost him his chance of passing the examination.

B. Being absent so often caused John fail his examination.

C. John failed his examination although he was absent quite often.

D. John’s failure in his examination suffered from his frequent absences.

Question 79: He found himself at a loss to understand his closest friend’s words.

A. He found his closest friend’s words quite incomprehensible.

B. He misunderstood his closest friend’s words completely.

C. He lost heart and didn’t understand his closest friend’s words.

D. He found his closest friend’s words easy to understand.

Question 80: It is a basic requirement in the modern world to be able to deal with figures.

A. The world requires us to have a basic understanding of figures.

B. Being able to deal with figures is a basic requirement in the modern world.

C. Dealing with the modern world requires a basic knowledge of figures.

D. Dealing with the figures requires a basic knowledge of the modern world.

***** THE END *****

ĐÁP ÁN MÃ ĐỀ 132

Câu	Đáp án	Câu	Đáp án	Câu	Đáp án	Câu	Đáp án
1	B	21	D	41	B	61	C
2	A	22	D	42	A	62	C
3	A	23	C	43	D	63	C
4	C	24	A	44	A	64	B
5	B	25	D	45	C	65	D
6	B	26	C	46	C	66	D
7	C	27	A	47	D	67	A
8	C	28	C	48	B	68	D
9	B	29	B	49	A	69	C
10	B	30	C	50	B	70	C
11	B	31	A	51	C	71	B
12	A	32	A	52	B	72	A
13	A	33	B	53	C	73	A
14	C	34	B	54	B	74	A
15	A	35	A	55	D	75	B
16	B	36	D	56	C	76	B
17	C	37	B	57	D	77	D
18	D	38	B	58	B	78	A
19	D	39	D	59	A	79	A
20	C	40	A	60	D	80	B