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Bộ Đề Thi Giữa Kì 2 Tiếng Anh 10 Năm 2022 Có Đáp Án Chi Tiết

Bộ Đề Thi Giữa Kì 2 Tiếng Anh 10 Năm 2022 Có Đáp Án Chi Tiết – Tiếng Anh Lớp 10 được Trang Tài Liệu sưu tầm với các thông tin mới nhất hiện nay. Đề thi này sẽ giúp các em học sinh ôn tập, củng cố kiến thức, rèn luyện kĩ năng làm bài. Cũng như hỗ trợ thầy cô trong quá trình giảng dạy. Hy vọng những tài liệu này sẽ giúp các em trong quá trình ôn luyện và đạt kết quả cao trong bài thi sắp tới.

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Bộ Đề Thi Giữa Kì 2 Tiếng Anh 10 Năm 2022 Có Đáp Án Chi Tiết

Dưới đây là bản đọc trực tuyến giúp thầy cô và các em học sinh có thể nghiên cứu Online hoặc bạn có thể tải miễn phí với phiên bản word để dễ dàng in ấn cũng như học tập Offline

ĐỀ 1


ĐỀ KIỂM TRA GIỮA HỌC KÌ 2 - NĂM HỌC 2021 –2022

MÔN TIẾNG ANH 10



I- PHẦN TRẮC NGHIỆM

LANGUAGE

Choose the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions (0.5 point)

Question 1: A. clear B. near C. dear D. bear

Question 2: A. loved B. watched C. arrived D. listened

Choose the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer of the following questions (1.5 point).

Question 3: You________sleep in the third room on the second floor. It's very peaceful.

A. shouldn’t B. should C. needn’t D. must

Question 4: There is ………………… apple on the table. ………………… apple is sweet.

A. a – The B. an – The C. the – An D. the – The

Question 5: Last night, millions houses in Tokyo ________.by the tornado which swept through this capital.

A. was being destroyed B. was destroyed

C. had been destroyed D. were destroyed

Question 6: The government has made no attempt to reduce soil________

A. disappearance B. circulation C. erosion D. power

Question 7: Narobi national park is ________240 km South West of Kenya.

A. located B. contained C. established D. found

Question 8: If you ________ us about the result of your exam, we'd have had a party to congratulate you.

A. didn't tell B. had told C. wouldn't have told D. hadn't told

Question 9: The children were sent to a local __________ right after their parents’ death.

A. orphanage B. hospital C. park D. prison

Question 10: An: "Shall we play a game of table tennis now?" Lam: "__________"

A. Not at all. B. You are welcome. C. Sorry. I'm too tired. D. I forgive you.

Question 11: The golden eagle is among the birds which are now ____ with extinction.

A. harmed B. damaged C. threatened D. promised

Question 12: Mammals are divided _____ three groups - monotremes, marsupials and placentals, all of which have fur, produce milk and are warm-blooded.

A. by B. into C. with D. for

Choose the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction (1.0 point).

Question 13: I had gone to see you if I’d known what you were ill.

A B C D

Question 14: People often turn off the electricity appliances for saving energy.

A B C D

Question 15. The company supplied us for the material.

A B C D

Question 16. We ought have come to the ballet. It was exciting.

A B C D

READING

Choose the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to complete the passage (1.0 point).

For many years people (17)_______ that the cleverest animals after man were chimpanzees. Now, however, there is proof that dolphins may be even cleverer than these big apes. Although a dolphin lives (18) _______ the sea, it is not a fish. It is a mammal. it is in many way, therefore, like a human being. Dolphins have simple language. They (19) _______ able to talk to one another. It may be possible for man to learn how to talk to dolphins. But (20) _______ will not be easy because dolphins cannot hear the kind of sounds man can make. If the man wants to talk to dolphins, therefore, he will have to make a third language which both he (21) _______ the dolphin can understand. Dolphins are also very friendly towards man. They often follow ships. There are many stories of dolphins (22)________ ships through difficult and dangerous water.

Question 17: A. blame B. claim C. require D. believe

Question 18: A. On B. For C. In D. At

Question 19: A. will B. are C. have been D. has been

Question 20: A. this B. those C. that D. these

Question 21: A. but B. so C. and D. or

Question 22: A. guiding B. to guide C. guide D. to guiding

Read the passage and choose the correct answer A, B, C or D to each of the questions (1.5 point).


The Cairngorms was made a National Park in September 2003 because it is a unique and special place that needs to be care for both for the wildlife and country, it contains for both people that live in it, manage it and visit it. It is Britain’s largest National Park. Cairngorm National Park has the largest area of mountain landscape in the United Kingdom at its heart, with diverse communities around it. It is home to 16,000 people and 25% of Britain’s endangered birds, animals, and plants. It includes moorlands, forests, rivers, lochs and glens. Since the establishment of Cairngorms National Park, there has not been a cross-park bus service. However, during the summer months visitors and resident will have the opportunity to explore the National Park using public transport. With 80 per cent of visitors coming to the National Park by car and many residents need a car to get around, it is important that residents and visitors alike have the choice to use forms of transport that are less damaging to the environment. Young people in Cairngorms national Park are often asked to make their viewpoints known on the future of the National Park at a series of events. Communities and other groups in and around Cairngorms National Park with creative ideas for biodiversity projects are being encouraged to apply for funding from the Biodiversity Grant Scheme, which provides funds for projects that will be help enhance and conserve the variety of life in the Cairngorms.

Question 23: The Cairngorms became a National Park in __________.

A. 2001 B. 2003 C. 2005 D. 2007

Question 24: Cairngorms National Park____________.

A. contains no mountains C. is not unique

A. is the largest in England D. was made a National Park in the 20th century

Question 25: According to the passage,____________.

A. there are no human beings living in Cairngorms National Park

B. there are not any rivers in Cairngorms National Park

C. visitors can get around Cairngorms National Park by bus

D. Cairngorms national Park does not contain any endangered species

Question 26: The word “their” in the passage refers to __________.

A. young people B. residents C. visitors D. groups

Question 27: We can learn from the passage that____________.

A. the authority does not care much of the National Park

B. the environment of the national Park is being damaged

C. there is not any collaboration of the residents to protect the national Park

D. there is a collaboration of the residents to protect the National Park

Question 28: The word “ important” in the passage is closest in meaning to_______.

A. vital B. easy C. difficult D. common

II- PHẦN TỰ LUẬN

Complete the sentences below with the correct form of the given word(0.5 point)

Question 29: In the zoo of the new kind, animals may suffer from (endanger)_______dieases.

Question 30: Some tiny (organize) ________ are carried along by the currents.

WRITING

Rewrite the following sentences, beginning as shown, without changing their meaning (1.0 point).

Question 31: Vicky missed the train because Ann was late.

If ______________________________________________________.

Question 32: Alex was instructing all the workers of the plan.

All the workers ______________________________________________.

Question 33: Smith and Adam can’t go to the concert because hey don’t have tickets .

If ______________________________________________________.

Join the two sentences, using an INFINITIVE of purpose

Question 34: Sandra learns French. She wants to sing French songs.

______________________________________________________.


Writing a biography(1. 5point).

Use the prompts to make up a complete paragraph about Trinh Cong Son (1.5p)

Trinh Cong Son/ born/February 28th, 1939 / Dac Lac.


He /start / compose music/ when / he / very young.


He /write / first song “Uot My ”/ 1958 / and / quickly become / famous.


1972 / he / win / the Japanese Golden Disc with Ngu Di Con.


Trinh Cong Son/ not only/ write/ songs/ but also/ draw / paintings.


He/ die/ April 1st, 2001.


---------------THE END---------------

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM



I- PHẦN TRẮC NGHIỆM

1.D

2.B

3.B

4.A

5.D

6.C



7.A

8. B

9. B

10.C

11.C

12. B



13.C

14. D

15. C

16. A

17.D

18.C



19.B

20.A

21.C

22. A

23.B

24.B



25. C

26. A

27. D

28. A






II- PHẦN TỰ LUẬN

29. dangerous

30. organisms

Rewrite the following sentences, beginning as shown, without changing their meaning (1.0 point).

31) If Ann had not been late,Vicky would not have missed the train.

32) All the workers of the plan were being instructed by Alex.

33) If Smith and Adam had tickets , they could go to the concert.

34) Sandra learn French for to sing French songs.

(To sing French songs.)


Writing a confirmation letter (1.5 point).

+ Form: 0.25 point

A confirmation letter

+ Task fulfillment: 0.5 point

Complete the task with relevant information.

Well-organized

+ Language: 0.25 point

Appropriate vocabulary

Correct grammar

Punctuating/ Spelling


ĐỀ 2


ĐỀ KIỂM TRA GIỮA HỌC KÌ 2 - NĂM HỌC 2021 –2022

MÔN TIẾNG ANH 10




Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1: A. media B. effort C. scene D. secret

Question 2: A. housewife B. founder C. country D. mountain

Question 3: A. spread B.team C. health D. pleasure

Question 4: A.option B.nation C.action D. question

Question 5: A. think B. depth C. breathe D. thank


Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 6: About 400 studens _______part in the protest.

A. held B. made C. did D. took

Question 7: There is a large ___________ of animals that live in Nairobi National Park.

A. vary B. various C. varied D. variety

Question 8: You've been coughing a lot lately. You___________ smoke so much.

A. shouldn't B. can't C. should D. can

Question 9: What would Tom do if he ___________ the truth?

A. would know B. has known C. knows D. knew

Question 10: Thanks for the great book . I really enjoyed­­_________it.

A. to read B. reading C. read D. having read

Question 11: The firstt term is going to an end soon and my school is going to have some days _______.

A. in B. off C. at D. of

Question 12: You are very quiet .What_______________about ?

A. did you think B. are you thinking

C. do you think D. will you think

Question 13: John worked really hard __________earn enough money for their living.

A. so that B.because of C. because D. so as to

Question 14: It took me about three hours __________the report.

A. complete B. to complete C. completing D. completed

Question 15: ____________is it from here to the theatre ?

A. How long B. How often C. How D. How far

Question 16: Phone me if there are any interesting _______.

A. news B. a piece of news C. some pieces of news D.pieces of news

Question 17: If you don't have anything _______ to say, I'd rather you kept quiet.

A. construct B. constructors C. constructive D. construction

Question 18: The program traced the _______ of popular music through the ages.

A. develop B. developed C. developing D. development

Question 19: They __________in New York for ten years before they moved to London.

A. had lived B.have lived C. live D.were living

Question 20: The twenty –five students , _____are learning how to read and write in her class, are disabled.

A. who B. that C. which D. whose

Question 21: They walked slowly _______ the woods.

A. on B. through C. Along D. across

Question 22: I was late for school this morning because my alarm clock didn”t ___________.

A. go on B. go away C. go off D. go up

Question 23: Can English _______at the club?.

A. be spoken B. speak C. be speaking D. to speak

Question 24 : That house is the __________one on the street.

A.old B.older C. oldest D. elder


Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Quesrion 25:We had an accidental meeting with an old friend at the party last night.

A. unpleasant B. unexpected C. unlucky D. unacceptable

Question 26 :They had to think of some other ways of bettering their lives

A. improving                       B. killing                  C. worsening               D. cutting

Question 27: Sperm whale population is at risk due to hunting.

A. in extinction B. in danger C. on the decrease D. in fewness


Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 28: Linda: Excuse me. Where’s the post office?

Maria __________

A. It’s over there. B. I’m afraid not. C. Don’t worry. D. Yes, I think so.

Question 29: Peter: How often do you go to school? – Harry ______________

A. I go there early. B. Every day except Sunday.

C. I don’t think so. D. I go there by bus.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 30: No one had cleaned the walls before they painted them

A. The walls had been cleaned before they were painted.

B. The walls hadn't been cleaned before they were painted.

C. The walls had not been cleaned before they were not been painted

D. The walls had been cleaned by some one before they had been painted

Question 31: He didn't go to see the doctor, so the cut on his hand got infected.

A. If he didn't go to see the doctor, the cut on his hand got infected.

B. If he had gone to see the doctor, the cut on his hand wouldn't have got infected.

C. If he went to see the doctor, the cut on his hand got infected.

D. If he had gone to see the doctor, the cut on his hand would have got infected.

Question 32: You drink too much coffee, that why you can't sleep

A. You drink much coffee and you can sleep.

B. You would sleep well if you didn't drink any coffee.

C. You can sleep better without coffee.

D. If you drank less coffee, you would be able to sleep.

Question 33: My father gave up smoking .

A. My father smokes a lot.

B. My father stopped smoking last year.

C. My father likes smoking.

D. My father used to smoke.

Question 34: Mary phoned me because she wanted to invite me to the party.

A. She phoned me to invite me to the party.

B. She invited me to the party.

C. She invites me to the party.

D. She phoned me to the party.

Question 35: In spite of _____________, we decided to go out.

A.we felt very tired

B. feeling tired

C. all of us felt tired

D. .tired

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 36 : Mary often has a breakfast before going to work.

A. often B. a breakfasst C. going D.work

Question 37 : I don”t have many time to prepare for the job interview.

A.many time B.don”t C.for D.job interview

Question 38 : Bella had better to change her study habbits if she wants to be admitted to a good college..

A. wants to be B.college C.to change D. to

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 39 to 45.

Conservation conflicts arise when natural-resource shortages develop in the face of steadily increasing demands from a growing human population. Controversy frequently surrounds how a resource should be used, or allocated, and for whom. For example, a river may supply water for agricultural irrigation, habitat for fish, and water-generated electricity for a factory. Farmers, fishers, and industry leaders vie for unrestricted access to this river, but such freedom could destroy the resource, and conservation methods are necessary to protect the river for future use.

Conflicts worsen when a natural resource crosses political boundaries. For example, the headwaters, or source, of a major river may be located in a different country than the country through which the river flows. There is no guarantee that the river source will be protected to accommodate resource needs downstream. In addition, the way in which one natural resource is managed has a direct effect upon other natural resources. Cutting down a forest near a river, for instance, increases erosion, the wearing away of topsoil, and can lead to flooding. Eroded soil and silt cloud the river and adversely affect many organisms such as fish and important aquatic plants that require clean, clear freshwater for survival.


Question 39: Which word in the reading means “a promise that something will be done or will happen, especially a written promise by a company to repair or change a product that develops a fault within a particular period of time”?

A. guarantee B. shortage C. population D. habitat

Question 40: When do conflicts decline?

A. when natural-resource shortages increase in the features of gradually increasing demands from a rising human population

B. when a natural resource crosses political borders

C. when freedom could destroy the resource

D. when eroded soil and silt cloud affect many organisms

Question 41 : What may bring water to agricultural irrigation?

A. a river B. topsoil C. erosion D. a forest

Question 42 : Which sentence below is not correct?

A. Argument often surrounds how a source should be used, or allocated, and for whom.

B. A river may provide water for agricultural irrigation, habitat for fish, and water-generated electricity for a factory.

C. Conservation methods are incidental to care for the river for future use.

D. Farmers, fishers, and industry leaders vie for open access to this river.

Question 43 ; Which sentence below is true?

A. Conflicts improve when a natural resource crosses political borders.

B. The source of a main river may be located in the country through which the river flows than a different country.

C. There is assurance that the river source will be confined to provide accommodation for resource needs downstream.

D. The way where one ordinary source is managed has a direct effect upon other ordinary sources.

Question 44: What is the passage above mainly about?

A. Natural-resource shortages

B. Agricultural irrigation

C. The headwaters of a major river

D. Conservation conflicts

Question 45: Which word in the reading means “living or growing in, happening in, or connected with water”?

A. necessary B. major C. fresh D. aquatic

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 46 to 50.

Dolphins are sociable creatures. They swim together in group known as ___(46) ___They show great ability in the water. Dolphins are interested in humans and often rescue people in the sea __(47) ___are in danger. They are intelligent creatures and make sounds to ___(48)____with each other. Scientists have studied dolphins ___ (49) ____many years and are now looking into the possibility of dolphins that are able to carry ___(50) _____ tasks under the sea.

Question 46: A. currents B. flocks C. schools D. teams

Question 47: A. which B. whose C. when D. who

Question 48: A. talk B. communicate C. contact D. connect

Question 49: A. in B. since C. for D. during

Question 50: A. out B. in C. of D. wit


ĐÁP ÁN

1

2

3

4

5

6

7

8

9

10

B

C

B

D

C

D

D

A

D

B

11

12

13

14

15

16

17

18

19

20

B

B

D

B

D

D

C

D

A

A

21

22

23

24

25

26

27

28

29

30

B

C

A

C

B

A

B

A

B

B

31

32

33

34

35

36

37

38

39

40

B

D

D

A

B

B

A

C

A

B

41

42

43

44

45

46

47

48

49

50

A

C

D

D

D

C

D

B

C

A


ĐỀ 3


ĐỀ KIỂM TRA GIỮA HỌC KÌ 2 - NĂM HỌC 2021 –2022

MÔN TIẾNG ANH 10



I. PHẦN TRẮC NGHIỆM

LISTENING

Listen to Amanda talking to a friend about a birthday party and decide whether the statements are true (T) or false (F). You will hear the recording twice. (1.25 ms)

1. Amanda invited eleven people to the party. T F

2. They will have ice cream made with coffee. T F

3. It’s Amanda’s birthday party. T F

4. Amanda will give Emma a video about football. T F

5. People should arrive at 8:30 p.m. T F

You will hear a woman asking for some information about a job. Listen and choose the correct option to complete each question. You will hear the recording twice. (1.25 ms)

6. Where did the woman see the job advertisement?

A. on the Internet B. on TV C. in the newspaper D. in a notice

7. What does the shop sell?

A. boots B. womens coats C. men’s jackets D. shirts and jeans

8. What time does the shop open?

A. 8:40 am B. 9:00 am C. 9:20 am D. 3:30 pm

9. How many days does the woman have to work?

A. four B. five C. six D. seven

10. How much does the woman earn an hour?

A. £5.20 B. £7 C. £5.70 D. £5.27

LANGUAGE

Choose the word whose underlined part differs from the other 3 in pronunciation. (0.5 m)

11. A. appear B. hear C. bear D. near

12. A. arrived B. hoped C. watched D. mixed

Choose the correct answer to each question. (1.5 ms)

13. Your salary is very low. I think you _______ for another job.

A. should look B. would look C. has looked D. shouldn’t look

14. If you exercised more, you _______ better.

A. will feel B. would feel C. feel D. would have felt

15. Newspapers ______ by the postman at 8 am every day.

A. are delivered B. deliver C. were delivered D. delivered

16. She went to the post office ______ a letter.

A. send B. sending C. to send D. sent

17. We really ought to make a start on campaigns to ____ our polluted rivers and seas.

A. clean up B. clear away C. wipe out D. tidy up

18. Excuse me for a moment, I have to _______ a telephone call.

A. make B. do C. see D. look

READING

Choose the correct answer to complete the passage. (1.25 ms)

Yellowstone National Park, the first US national park, (19) _______ established in 1872. It is one of the largest parks. It covers about 3,500 square miles (20) _______ 9,063 square kilometers in north-west Wyoming and parts of Idaho and Montana. It has many wild animals, (21) _______ bears, buffalo, elk, deer, antelope, coyotes, and lynxes, and is famous for its fine scenery, hot springs and geysers (underground hot spring that shoot hot water or steam up into the air). (22) _______ are about seventy geysers in the park. The famous is Old Faithful.

The park is a popular tourist attraction. It has about three million visitors a year. It was (23) _______ a World Heritage Site in 1978.

19. A. is B. was C. has been D. had

20. A. or B. and C. but D. so

21. A. containing B. including C. adding D. consisting

22. A. These B. It C. There D. They

23. A. called B. opened C. made D. formed

Read the passage and choose the correct answer to each of the questions. (1.25 ms)

Most people are afraid of sharks, but they usually do not know much about them. For example, there are about 350 species of sharks that live in oceans over the world. All of the sharks are carnivores, but most of them don't attack people. Some sharks are very small the smallest shark is about 6 inches long about as long as your hand. But some sharks are very large. The largest species of sharks may be 60 feet long and weigh 15 tons. Unlike many other kinds of fish, sharks do not have bone. Their bodies are made up of a kind of tough white flexible material (called cartilage). Sharks do not have ears. However, they 'hear’ sounds and movements in the water. Any sound or movement makes the water vibrate. Sharks can feel these vibrations and they help the sharks find food. Sharks use their large eyes to find food, too. Most sharks see best in low light. They often hunt for food at dawn in the evening, or in the middle of the night.

Nowadays scientists want to learn more about sharks for several reasons. For example, cancer is common in many animals, including, people. However, it is rare in sharks. Scientists want to find out why sharks almost never get cancer. Maybe this information can help people prevent cancer too.

24. The best title of this passage is _______.

A. Sharks – The Meat Eaters B. Sharks – The Cancer Preventing Animals

C. Sharks – The Useful Animals D. Sharks – The Dangerous Animals

25. The word carnivores” in the passage is closest in meaning to _______.

A. big mammals B. small sharks C. meat eaters D. humans

26. The bold word 'they' in the passage refers to ______.

A. sharks B. sounds C. vibrations D. movements

27. Which of the following is NOT true?

A. Large sharks can weigh up to 15,000 kg. B. Sharks' bodies are made up of cartilage.

C. Sharks can find their food by feeling vibrations. D. Sharks often attack people.

28. Sharks can find food because they can ________.

A. feel vibrations and hear with their ears B. see with their eyes and hear with their ears

C. feel vibrations and see with their large eyes D. hear very well with their large ears

WRITING

Mark the underlined part that needs correction. (0.5 m)

29. (A) Im sure Mary (B) will understand if you explained (C) the situation (D) to her.

30. Cuc Phuong, (A) the first (B) national park in Viet Nam, was (C) official opened (D) in 1960.


II. PHẦN TỰ LUẬN

Complete the sentences below with the correct form of the given word. (0.5 m)

31. We cannot stop the ________________ of plants and animals. (appear)

32. The giant panda is an ________________ species. (endanger)

Rewrite the following sentences, beginning as shown, without changing their meaning. (1 m)

33. The last time he met me was 5 months ago. He hasn’t _________________________________________________

34. He has difficulty in making friends at his new school. He finds it __________________________________________

35. I don't know enough about the machine, so I can't mend it myself.

If I ___________________________________________________________________________________________

36. Thomas Edison invented the phonograph in 1877. The phonograph ______________________________________

Writing a letter (1 m)

Your friend has invited you to her birthday party this Sunday. Write a reply letter of 100-120 words to accept or decline his/ her invitation using a suggested frame below.

* Useful language for you to write a letter of acceptance and refusal:

To accept

To refuse

- I'd be very pleased/ delighted/ very happy to come to…/ to accept your...

- Thank you for … / Thanks for yourThe answer is "yes"

- I'm very/ terribly sorry but I'll still have to refuse …

- Thank you for your but unfortunately … It's not possible for me to …

* Begin and end your letter as follow:

Dear Mai,

__________________________________________________________________________________________________

__________________________________________________________________________________________________

__________________________________________________________________________________________________

__________________________________________________________________________________________________

Love,

Ha Tran



ĐỀ 4


ĐỀ KIỂM TRA GIỮA HỌC KÌ 2 - NĂM HỌC 2021 –2022

MÔN TIẾNG ANH 10


A. MULTIPLE CHOICE

Choose word has the underlined part pronounced differently from the rest:

Question 1: A. students

B. animals

C. flowers

D. uniforms

Question 2: A. eliminated

B. forced

C. worked

D. missed

Question 3: A. weeks

B. ships

C. laughs

D. nods

Question 4: A. books

B. ships

C. laughs

D. kisses

Choose the best to complete the sentnces:

Question 5: Gender ______________ is not onl a fundermental human right, but a necessary foundation for a peaceful, prosperous and sustainable world.

A. equity B. unity C. equality D. identity

Question 6: Women are more likely to be victims of violence.

A. domestic B. household C. home D. family

Question 7: Today gender inequality still persists everywhere and stagnates social______________.

A. progressive B. progression C. progress D. progressively

Question 8: We should not allow any kind of _____________against women and girls.

A. discriminate B. discriminated C. discriminating D. discrimination

Question 9: Tan: “How do the roles of men and women differ in your family?”---Mai: ________________ A. Most of men don’t want to stay at home. B. Women are changing their roles.

C. Most men are ver bossy and arrogant. D. Men are breadwinners and women are caregivers.

Question 10: Paul: “I suppose that working mothers are good educators for their children.” - Kate: “_____” A. I agree with you. They know little about educating.

B. I couldn’t agree more. They are able to teach their children at home.

C. That’s true. They don’t know how to teach their children.

D. Because educators are teachers.

Question 11: Gender discrimination must____________ in order to create a better society.

A. be eliminated B.eliminate C. be eliminating D. eliminated

Question 12: This is ______________ wedding party I’ve ever attended.

A. more memorable B. the most memorable C. most memorable D. the ore memorable Question 13: Modules ________ in the minimum amount of time.

A. cannot always be completed B. cannot be completed always

C. can always be not completed D. can be not always completed

Question 14: The return of assignment, exams and final grades _______ by lecturers’ time.

A. could affected B. could be affected C. could affect Question 15: You had better reservea table at the restaurant.

D. could be affect

A. can B.may C.could

Question 16: You ____________pick those flowers. It’s not permitted.

D. should

A. won’t B. can’t C. mustn’t

Question 17: We _____________ stop when the traffic lights are red.

D.shouldn’t

A. must B. should C. may

D. can

Choose the underlined part that needs correcting.

Question 18: My brother is good at cooking and he must cook very delicious food.

A. brother B.at C.must D.very

Question 19: Remember to bring a raincoat with you. It might raining later.

A. Remember B.a raincoat C.with D.might raining

Question 20:

No one is happier than bridgegroom on the day of his wedding. He is the most happiest person on that day.

A. is B.his wedding C.the most happiest D.on that day

Choose the best option to complete the following passage.

In the 1980s feminism became less popular in the US and there was less (21)__________ in solving the remaining problems, such as the fact that most men still earn (22__________ less than men But American women have more opprtunities than anyone thought possible 40 years ago. One of (23_________ biggest discrimination is in how people think. Although there is still discrimination, the principle that should not exist is (24)_______________accepted..

Question 21: A. concern

B. interest

C. worry

D. care

Question 22: A. much

B. so

C. too

D. as

Question 23: A. the

B. more

C. the most

D. most

Question 24: A. wide

B. widen

C. wider

D. widely

Read the passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Tawakkol Karman was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize in 2011 in recognition of her work in non-violent struggle for the safety of women and for women’s rights to full participation in Yemen.

Tawakkol was born in 1979 in Taiz, Yemen’s third largest city. She studied a degree in Commerce from the University of Science and Technology in Sana’a before completing another degree in Political Science from the University of Sana’a.

Growing up in a country with political uncertainty, Tawakkol witnessed the unification of North and South Yemen in 1990, followed by a civil war in 1994 in which the North gained victory over the South.

As a journalist and human rights activist, Tawakkol responded to the political instability and human rights abuses in Yemen by organizing others and reporting injustices. In 2005, she founded the organization Women Journalists Without Chains (WJWC) which supports rights and freedoms and provides media skills to journalists. In addition, the organization releases regular reports in human rights abuses in Yemen, recording more than 50 cases of attacks and unfair sentences against newspapers and writers so far.

In 2007, Tawakkol began organizing weekly protests in Yemen’s capital, Sana’a, aiming at calling for inquiries into social and legal injustice. Tawakkol’s weekly protests continued until 2011 when she redirected protesters to support the Arab Spring. Tawakkol even brought Yemen’s revolution to New York speaking directly with UN Secretary General Ban Ki-Moon and organizing public meetings at the UN headquarters. Brave and outspoken, Tawakkol has been imprisoned on a number of occasions for her opposition movement for human rights. She is known as “Mother of the Revolution”, and “The Iron Woman”.

Since receiving the Nobel Peace Prize, she has continued to support female journalists and encouraged people in Yemen to ask for social justice and human rights. Fiercely committed to change, Tawakkol spends the majority of her time in a tent in Change Square, where she continues her peaceful protest for justice and freedom.

Question 25: By establishing WJWC, Tawakkol would like .

A. to oppose to the victory of the government from the North

B. to support rights and freedom and provide media skill to journalists

C. to start the non-violent struggle for the safety of women and for women’s rights

D. to report the unification of North and South Yemen and the civil war

Question 26: The organization WJWC produces regular reports on .

A. bad sentences in newspaper articles issued in Yemen

B. weekly protests in Yemen’s capital and the government’s repression

C. violent and unfair treatments against humans especially journalists

D. organizing public meetings at the United Nations headquarter

Question 27: The purpose of weekly protests in Yemen’s capital led by Tawakkol from 2007 to 2011 was

.

A. to ask to make speeches at the United Nations headquarters

B. to bring Yemen’s revolution to New York and speak to UN Secretary General

C. to get many women free from prisons on a number of occasions

D. to oppose to social and legal injustice and wrongdoings from the government Question 28: All of the following are true about Tawakkol EXCEPT that .

A. she has started supporting female journalists since 2011

B. she was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize in 2011

C. she started supporting the Arab Spring in 2011

D. she has been put in prison several times

B. WRITING

Part 1: Rewrite the sentences so that they have the similar meaning. Begin with the given words.

Question 29: Each student must write an essay on gender equality.

__An essay on gender equality______________________________________________.

Question 30: They should give men and women equal pay for equal work.

__Men and women______________________________________________.

Question 31: No ocean in the world is deeper than the Pacific.

__The Pacific is______________________________________________.

Question 32: I’m sure John is the best student in my class.

__John ______________________________________________.

Part 2: Rewrite the complete sentences(1.0 point)

Question 33: Bicycles/must not/leave/in the hall.

__Bicycles______________________________________________.

Question 34: This is/interesting film/ I /ever see.

__This is ______________________________________________.

_______THE END_____

ĐỀ 5


ĐỀ KIỂM TRA GIỮA HỌC KÌ 2 - NĂM HỌC 2021 –2022

MÔN TIẾNG ANH 10




I. Choose word has the underlined part pronounced differently from the rest.

1. A. books B. cats C. dogs

D. maps

2. A. animals B. tourists C. holidays


D. reason

3. A. planned B. worked C. helped


D. passed

4.A. looked B. pushed C. visited

D. matched

II. Choose the best to complete the sentences:

5. We should non-renewable natural resources for our future generations.

A. to protect B. protect C. protection D. protecting

6. I believe gender in education starts at home.

A. discriminate B. discrimination C. discriminator D. discriminative

7. My Maths this term is than that of last year.

A. good B. gooder C. better D. best

8. This room must by her every day.

A. be cleaning B. cleaned C. be cleaned D. clean

9. The Vietnamese government has done a lot to hunger and poverty.

A. eliminate B. increase C. protect D. keep

10. She is girl in our class.

A. the most beautiful B. more beautiful

C. most beautiful D. beautiful 11. About 500 girls in our school this year.

A. forced B. enrolled C. eliminated D. discriminated

12. Most people think that children to play violent games.

A. should be made B. can be allowed

C. may be asked D. shouldn't be allowed 13. Women often become passive and dependent their husbands.

A. in B. for C. on D. with

14. No one in the team can play better than Tim.

A. Tim plays well but the others play better.

B. Tim as well as other players of the team plays very well.

C. Everyone in the team, but Tim, plays very well. D. Tim is the best player in the team.

15. Somebody might steal your car.

A.Somebody might have stolen your car.

B.Your car might be stolen.

C.Your car might been stolen by somebody.

D. Your car might have been stolen.

16. Lan: "Why don't we have a look at some websites for more information about the environment?"

Minh: “____________”

A. Yes, thanks. B. Yes, why not?

C. It's my pleasure. D. Do we?

17. Peter :"____________"

Mary: "By bus."

A. What did you take to get there? B. Did you get there by motorbike?

C. How long did it take you to get there? D. How did you get there?

III. Choose the underlined part that needs correcting.

18. This book is interesting than that book.

A B C D

19. This discrimination against women and girls must be abolishing.

A B C D

20. No one is the happiest than the bride and groom on the day of their wedding.

A B C D

IV. Choose the word or phrase among A, B, C or D that best fits the blank space in the following passage.

England has had a democracy for a long time. Until 1918, however, women were not allowed

(21) ____ in it. The right to vote is called ‘suffrage’ and the English women who fought (22) ____ and won that right were called “suffragettes”.

The suffragette movement was led by Emmiline Pankhurst. In 1903, she (23) ____ an organization called the Women’s Social and Politica Union (WSPU). Members of the WSPU went to the Prime Minister to (24) ____ suffrage, but he told them to “be patient”. The suffragettes were not (25) ____.They wanted change immediately.

21. A. to vote B. for vote

C. in voting

D. vote

22. A. with B. for

C. against

D. to

23. A. did B. made

C. founded

D. found

24. A. demand B. ask

C. want

D. raise

25.A.satisfaction B. satisfactory

C. satisfy

D. satisfied

V. Read a text and answer the questions that follow.

Today, more and more women are actively participating in social activities both in urban and rural areas. Specifically, they have shined brightly in even many fields commonly regarded as the man's areas such as business, scientific research and social management. In some areas, women even show more overwhelming power than men. The image of contemporary Vietnamese women with creativeness, dynamism, success has become popular in Vietnam's society. The fact reveals that the gender gap has been remarkably narrowed and women enjoy many more opportunities to pursue their social careers and obtain success, contributing to national socio-economic development. According to Ms, Le Thi Quy, Director of the Gender/and Development Research Centre under the University of Social Sciences and Humanities, Hanoi National University, gender equity in Vietnam has reached a high level over the past decade. The rate of Vietnamese women becoming National Assembly members from the 9th term to the 11th term increased 8.7%, bringing the proportion of Vietnamese women in authority to 27.3%, the highest rate in Southeast Asia. There is no big gap in the level of literacy and schooling between men and women. Women account for about 37% of university and college graduates, 19.9% of doctoral degree holders and 6.7% of professors and associate professors.

The legitimate rights of women and children are ensured more than ever before with more complete legal documents including laws, conventions and national action plans, among which the laws on "gender equity" mark a turning-point in the empowerment of women.

Mass media also highlights the continued success of women in every field and honors their great importance in modern society, helping to do away with outdated perceptions about traditional women's duties. Many projects on reproductive health care, children protection, and family income improvement jointly conducted by various mass organizations, state agencies and nongovernmental organizations have created favorable conditions for women to become involved.

26. The text is about .

a. the changes in the status of Vietnamese women

b. the Vietnamese women's liberation

c. the Vietnamese sex discrimination

d. the discrimination that Vietnamese women have to face 27. Which adjective is not used to describe Vietnamese women?

a. successful b. creative c. narrow d. dynamic

28. According to the data in the text, .

a. Vietnamese women do not take part in authority

b. the level of literacy and schooling between men and women in Vietnam is the same

c. there are more women in authority in Vietnam than those in any other countries in Southeast Asia.

d. there are no female professors in Vietnam 29. Vietnamese women .

a. have few opportunities to develop their intellectual ability

b. have only shined brightly in doing housework

c. cannot do any scientific research

d. are ensured their rights with laws, conventions and national action plans

30. Which is not mentioned in the text as a project to create condition for Vietnamese women?

a. Traditional women's duties b. Reproductive health care

c. Children protection d. Family income improvement

B. WRITING

Part 1: Rewrite the sentences so that they have the same meaning. Begin with the given words.

1. Will they teach Korean in our school next year?

Will Korean ____________________________?

2. The Nile is longer than any other river in the world.(long) The Nile is the _________________________________

3. Very young children shouldn’t eat sugary food.

Sugary food ________________________________

4. Russia is bigger than any country in the world. (big)

Rusia is the _________________________________

Part 2: Make a complete sentence.

1. In rural areas,/ gỉrls / might/ force/ work/ at home/ or / the fields.

______________________________________

2. Mr Smith/ be/ old/ than/ Mr Long/ when/ he/ get/ married.

_______________________________________________

ĐỀ 6


ĐỀ KIỂM TRA GIỮA HỌC KÌ 2 - NĂM HỌC 2021 –2022

MÔN TIẾNG ANH 10


A. MULTIPLE CHOICE

Choose word has the underlined part pronounced differently from the rest:

Question 1: A. houses B. horses C. matches D. wives

Question 2: A. barracks B. series C. means D. headquarters Question 3: A. reformed B. appointed C. stayed D. installed

Question 4: A. fitted B. educated C. locked D. intended

Choose the best to complete the sentences:

Question 5: Many people in our country still think married women shouldn’t ________ a career.

A. perform B. eliminate C. pursue D. enrol

Question 6: Gender ___________has become a hot subject of conversation among school students.

A. laws B. mission C. discrimination D. unity

Question 7: Please decide what you want to do. You must make a ____________.

A. decide B. decision C. decisive D. decisively

Question 8: The teacher does everything in order to____________her students.

A. courage B. encourage C. encouragement D. encouraged

Question 9: Mike and Lane are neighbors. They are talking about Lane’s party.

Mike: “Thank you for a lovely evening”

Lane: “________”

A. It depends on you B. Thanks C. Yeah. I’m very lovely D. You are welcome

Question 10: Lan: “Would you rather work for a male or female boss?”

Nam: “____”

A. I’ve been self-employed for five years. B. I don’t like working under time pressure.

C. I prefer a male boss. D. I can’t stand the women gossips.

Question 11: Men and women ___________equal rights to education and employment.

A. must give B. should give

D. should be given C. would be given

Question 12: People may consider obesity a serious health problem. A. Obesity may be considered a serious health problem.

B. Obesity might be considered a serious health problem.

C. A serious health problem may be considered obesity.

D. A serious health problem may consider obesity.

Question 13: Milk_______ be kept in the bridge or it will go sour.

A. must B. will C. can D. should

Question 14: This company can ____ for wage discrimination among workers of different genders.

A. be sued B. be suing C. sue D. sued

Question 15: This is ____ wedding party I’ve ever attended.

A. the more memorable B. more memorable C. the most memorable D. most memorable Question 16: Ho Chi Minh city is than Hanoi.

A. big B. bigger C. biggest D. biger

Question 17: My English this term is__________than that of last year.

A. good B. gooder C. better D. best

Choose the underlined part that needs correcting. (3 CÂU)

Question 18: More girls should being chosen to represent us in the School Youth Union.

A B C D

Question 19: She applied in a firefighter’s position at the New York City Fire Department.

A B C D

Question 20: No one is the happiest than the bride and the groom on the day of their wedding.

A B C D

Choose the best option to complete the following passage. (4 CÂU)

Education helps woman (21)__________ equality. First, education gives women knowledge necessary for their lives. It is impossible for a woman to be a doctor, a teacher or a lawyer without adequate knowledge. Education realizes women's dreams (22)_______ having jobs with the same pay as men.

Second, education shapes women's character. It teaches them about life and develop their abilities to think, and judge. Women with strong characters often make decisions about their own lives without being dependent on their husbands .

Finally , education women's position both at home and in (23)_________ . Educated women are more likely to get (24)_________ jobs , earn more money and become more important at home . They can join political activities and gain important positions as leaders, policy makers or politicians. So we can clearly see , education enables women to achieve equality.

Question 21: A. win B. winning C. won D. having won

Question 22: A. in B. on C. of D.to

Question 23: A. social B. society C. sociable D. socially Question 24: A. bad B. well C. well- paid D. high

Read the passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. Sonita Alizadeh was born and grew up in Afghanistan until she was eight when the family fled to Iran because of war. Sonita remembers her childhood of hunger, aerial bombardment and Taliban fighters. In Iran, she couldn't get a formal education because of not having proper identification. She had to clean bathrooms and learnt the basics of how to read and write herself.

Sonita watched music videos on TV to kill her free time and learnt the styles of Iranian rapper Yas and US rapper Eminem. She started to write songs about her life as a refugee, child worker and especially a female. Other songs are about her girl friends with broken spirits after arguing and begging their parents not to sell them. Her songs have empowered her friends to protest against forced marriages which account for 60-80 per cent of Afghan marriages.

Things were all right until they weren't. Sonita's mother asked her to come back to Afghanistan as she needed 7,000 dowry to prepare for Sonita's brother's wedding. Her mother thought she could sell Sonita for a man with 9,000 dowry. Devastated by her mother's wish, Sonita fought by making a music video "Daughters for Sale" with the help of an Iranian filmmaker. Thanks to the video, the Strongheart Group contacted her and gave her a scholarship in the US where she now can go to school and remain single.

Question 25: What did Sonita do to earn money in Iran? A. She wrote songs and rapped.

B. She cleaned bathrooms.

C. She made music videos.

D. She washed the dishes

Question 26: What is TRUE about Sonita's songs? A. They were banned in Iran.

B. They have given girls strength to protest against arranged marriages.

C. They're about her love of her homeland Afghanistan.

D. People like them

Question 27: How did Sonita feel when her mother wanted to sell her?

A. Extremely upset and shocked B. Calm and indifferent

C. Angry and hateful

D. Happy and lucky

Question 28: Where does Sonita live now?

A. Afghanistan

B. Iran

C. The USA

D. Vietnam

B. WRITING ( 6 x 0,5 =3.0 points)

Part 1: Rewrite the sentences so that they have the similar meaning. Begin with the given words.(2.0 points) Question 29. They will sue the company for wage discrimination. The company__________________________________________

Question 30. Can they speak English at the club?

Can English__________________________________________?

Question 31. Someone might steal my wallet.

My__________________________________________________

Question 32. No mountain in North America is higher than Mount McKinley. Mount McKinley ______________________________________

Part 2: Rewrite the complete sentences(1.0 point)

Question 33. Children/ should/ not/ allowed/ play/violent/ video games.

____________________________________________________________

Question 34. It/ was/ delicious/ food/I/ ever/ eat/

____________________________________________________________


_______THE END_____




Ngoài Bộ Đề Thi Giữa Kì 2 Tiếng Anh 10 Năm 2022 Có Đáp Án Chi Tiết – Tiếng Anh Lớp 10 thì các đề thi trong chương trình lớp 10 sẽ được cập nhật liên tục và nhanh nhất có thể sau khi kỳ thi diễn ra trên Danh mục Kho Đề Thi nhằm giúp các bạn đọc thuận tiện trong việc tra cứu và đối chiếu đáp án. Quý thầy cô và các bạn đọc có thể chia sẻ thêm những tài liệu học tập hữu ích đến địa chỉ email của chúng tôi, nhằm xây dựng nên kho đề thi phong phú, đa dạng cho các em học sinh tham khảo và rèn luyện.

Bộ đề thi giữa kì 2 tiếng Anh 10 năm 2022 bao gồm nhiều đề thi khác nhau, mỗi đề thi gồm nhiều câu hỏi với độ khó và kiểu dáng khác nhau để học sinh có thể rèn luyện và kiểm tra kỹ năng tiếng Anh của mình. Tất cả các đề thi đều có đáp án chi tiết giúp học sinh có thể tự đánh giá được mức độ của mình và cải thiện kỹ năng trong quá trình học tập.

Một số từ khóa để tìm kiếm bộ đề này có thể là:

  • Bộ đề thi giữa kì 2 tiếng Anh lớp 10 năm 2022
  • Đề thi giữa kì 2 môn tiếng Anh lớp 10 năm học 2022
  • Đề kiểm tra tiếng Anh giữa kì 2 lớp 10 năm 2022
  • Đề thi tiếng Anh giữa kỳ 2 có đáp án chi tiết

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