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Đề Thi HSG Lớp 11 Môn Tiếng Anh (Olympic) Sở GD&ĐT Quảng Nam (Đề 1)

Đề Thi HSG Lớp 11 Môn Tiếng Anh (Olympic) Sở GD&ĐT Quảng Nam (Đề 1) Có Đáp Án – Tiếng Anh 11 được Trang Tài Liệu sưu tầm với các thông tin mới nhất hiện nay. Đề thi này sẽ giúp các em học sinh ôn tập, củng cố kiến thức, rèn luyện kĩ năng làm bài. Cũng như hỗ trợ thầy cô trong quá trình giảng dạy. Hy vọng những tài liệu này sẽ giúp các em trong quá trình ôn luyện và đạt kết quả cao trong bài thi sắp tới.

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Đề Thi HSG Lớp 11 Môn Tiếng Anh (Olympic) Sở GD&ĐT Quảng Nam (Đề 1)

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SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO

QUẢNG NAM

KỲ THI OLYMPIC QUẢNG NAM NĂM 2019

Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH – Lớp 11

ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC


Thời gian: 150 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)

Ngày thi : 21/3/2019


Thí sinh trả lời vào tờ phiếu trả lời trắc nghiệm.


  1. LISTENING (2.0 pts)


PART 1: Questions 1-5 (1.0 pt)

You will hear a woman and a man talking about their work at the library. Complete the information below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. You will hear the conversation twice.


CITY LIBRARY

Head Librarian: Mrs. Phillips

Hours: (1) __________________________to 4:30

Books

Ground floor: (2) ______________________________

Second floor: Adult collection

Third floor: (3) ______________________________

Book carts

Brown cart: books to re-shelve

Black cart: books to (4) _________________________

White cart: books to (5) ________________________



PART 2: Questions 6-10 (1.0 pt)

You will hear part of a radio interview with Martin Middleton, who makes wildlife programmes for television. For questions 6-10, choose the best answer (A, B or C). You will hear the conversation twice.


6. When he visited Borneo, Martin __________________________________________

A. made a programme about life on the river.

B. had no fixed expectations.

C. became more interested in filming old buildings.

7. Since the early 1960s, wildlife filming has become ____________________________

A. more organised. B. more relaxed. C. more creative.

8. When he takes a holiday, Martin prefers to _____________________­­­­­­______________

A. relax by the sea.

B. travel for a particular reason.

C. stay in comfortable surroundings.

9. Martin thought that the holiday-makers he saw in the Dominican Republic were_______

A. risking their health. B. wasting opportunities. C. lacking entertainment.

10. According to Martin, tourism _____________________________________________

A. should be discouraged. B. is well managed. C. can be a good thing.




II. LEXICO- GRAMMAR (3.0 pts)

For questions 11- 40, choose the option (A, B, C or D) that best completes each of the following sentences.


11. The chemical _______ from cars and factories make the air, water and soil dangerously dirty.

A. pollution B. polluted C. pollute D. pollutants

12. Mr Evans has _______ a valuable contribution to the development of the school.

A. done B. created C. caused D. made

13. Most psychologists agree that the basic structure of an individual’s personality is ______.

A. by the age of five it is quite well established

B. well established quite by the age of five

C. by the age of five and quite well established

D. quite well established by the age of five

14. The dogs next door keep barking. It’s really _______.

A. annoying B. annoyed C. annoyance D. annoy

15. The flood resulted ________ many thousands of deaths.

A. about B. from C. in D. on

16. Two students, Bill and Bob, are talking about their teacher, Ms Young. Choose the most suitable response to fill in the blank in the following exchange.

Bill: “Ms Young always grades fairly.”

Bob: “_______

A. I can’t say that it does. B. Actually, she is the second best.

C. Really? How could that be? D. I couldn’t agree with you more.

17. The public library _______ to all readers who are interested in reading and doing research.

A. is opening B. is open C. is opened D. is being opened

18. _______ better working conditions.

A. What’s interesting the workers most is B. What interests the workers most is

C. What interest the workers most is D. What’s interested the workers most is

19. Does anyone know _______ that jacket might be?

A. whose B. who C. whom D. why

20. Drinking water _______ excessive amounts of flourides may leave a stained or mottled effect on the enamel of teeth.

A. containing B. in which containing C. contains D. contained

21. The football match was so dull that most of the _______ left at half time.

A. viewers B. audience C. lookers D. spectators

22. Daisy: Is swimming under water very difficult?

Tom: No, it’s just a matter _______ able to control your breathing.
A
. to be B. that you are C. of being D. being

23. Linda and Maya are talking to each other. Choose the most suitable response to fill in the blank in the following exchange.

- Linda: Do you mind the window being open?

- Maya: _______. It’s much too cold.

A. I’m afraid I don’t B. No, I don’t C. Yes, please D. Yes, I do mind

24. The school was closed for a month because of serious _______ of fever.

A. outbreak B. outcome C. outburst D. outset

25. Declared an endangered species in the United States, _______.

A. the ginseng root has been gathered almost to the point of extinction

B. people have gathered the ginseng root almost to the point of extinction

C. the near extinction of the ginseng root is due to excessive gathering

D. gathering the ginseng root almost to the point of extinction

26. Many newer cars have a much lower fuel _______.

A. consuming B. consumer C. consummation D. consumption

27. John: I _______ about buying a new car recently.

Peter: Really? What sort of car?

A. thought B. have been thinking

C. have thought D. had been thinking

28. Before you sign the contract, _______ in mind that you won’t be able to change anything later.

A. hold B. retain C. bear D. reserve

29. Europe’s share of the world population has sharply _______ from 21.7 to 12.8 percent.

A. declined B. reached C. increased D. maintained

30. There was an accident at the crossroads _______ midnight last night.

A. on B. at C. for D. in

31. ______ had the van turned the corner than the wheel came off.

A. No longer B. No sooner C. Hardly D. Scarcely

32. _______ James wanted to show his wife that he bought her a very expensive diamond ring.

A. How love B. It is how the love

C. How much love D. It was how much love

33. Determining the mineral content of soil samples is an exacting process; _______ experts must perform detailed tests to analyze soil specimens.

A. therefore B. so that C. however D. afterward

34. One man _______ outside his country is tipped to become the new president.

A. little knowing B. little known C. to know little D. to be little known

35. _______ further riot to occur, the government would be forced to use its emergency powers.

A. Should B. Were C. Did D. Had

36. _______ of transportation has given someone the idea for a new type of toy.

A. Mostly forms B. Most every form C. Almost forms D. Almost every form


For questions 37 - 38, choose the option (A, B, C or D) to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

37. There was not total agreement, but by and large, the members agreed that the new rules were necessary.

A. fortunately B. generally C. sadly D. coincidentally

38. The National Institute of Mental Health is conducting far-reaching reseach to determine the psychological effects of using drugs.

A. refined B. prevalent C. extensive D. tentative


For questions 39 - 40, choose the option (A, B, C or D) to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

39. Pure water is often a fairly rare commodity that requires significant energy to produce.

A. sanitary B. contaminated C. flawless D. clean

40. He had never experienced such discourtesy towards the president as it occured at the annual meeting in May.

A. rudeness B. politeness C. encouragement D. measurement


III. READING (3.0 pts)

PART 1: For questions from 41- 50, read the text below and decide which option (A, B, C, or D) best fits each of the numbered gaps. (1.0 pt)

THE EARLY DAYS OF FOOTBALL

Football became the game we know today during the reign of Queen Victoria in the nineteenth century. So many different (41) _______ of the game were being played in Britain at that time, that in 1863 the Football Association was formed in order to draw up and agree the (42) _______ of the game.

Throughout the country new football (43) ______ were built and the development of the railways (44) ______ that football teams and their fans could travel to the matches. In 1888, the Football League was (45) _______ up with twelve clubs, and football became a national sport, (46) _______ to rugby by many people as the more popular game of the two.

Sometimes people played the game in just a field. In one town, Burnley, in the north of England, the field had a river (47) ______ along the side of it in which players took baths after matches. People stood on banks made from earth and it was not until the early 1900s that (48) ______ stands were built. The players would have had two wooden (49) ______ for the goal with tapes across the top instead of a crossbar, and nets were not (50) ______ until 1891.

41. A. methods B. conditions C. ways D. forms

42. A. techniques B. rules C. laws D. lines

43. A. places B. lands C. grounds D. courses

44. A. meant B. helped C. intended D. said

45. A. put B. got C. made D. set

46. A. wanted B. favoured C. preferred D. liked

47. A. running B. lying C. moving D. causing

48. A. accurate B. right C. proper D. correct

49. A. pins B. nails C. points D. posts

50. A. composed B. invented C. completed D. presented


PART 2. For questions 51 - 60, read the following passage and decide which option A, B, C, or D best fits each of the questions. (1.0 pt)


SURFACE WATER AND GROUND WATER

Ensuring the reliability and purity of the water supply is one of the more significant challenges facing an ever growing world population. Unfortunately, only about 3% of the world’s total water supply is fresh; the rest is sea water and is unusable for most of our purposes. Furthermore, of that 3%, three fourths are largely inaccessible because it exists as frozen ice locked in the polar ice caps or as glaciers high in mountains. The remaining percentage of fresh water that is available for human use exists in two forms: surface water and ground water.

Surface water is found in rivers, lakes, and man-made reservoirs fad by either rainfall or snowmelt. Surface water makes up nearly 80% of all the water utilized by humans, primarily due to its accessibility. Nearly every river or lake in the world contains one or more pumping stations to divert a portion of its flow to nearby population centers. However, surface water supplies present several disadvantages. First, surface water is easily polluted. Chemical pollution from the air enters surface water in the form of rain, and ground pollution is either dumped directly into lakes and rivers or washed into them by rainwater. In addition, biological pollution caused by the dumping of raw sewage into a water source, can lead to dangerous levels of bacteria. Another problem is relying on surface water is that its supply is highly variable. Water levels in lakes and rivers can fall drastically in periods of severe drought. In places that are prone to extended dry periods, such as Australia or much of California, some rivers are even known to occasionally run dry due to a combination of drought and overuse.

The other primary source of fresh water is ground water. Although ground water is estimated to be as much as 50 times more abundant than surface water, it constitutes only 20% of all the fresh water used by humans, and much of this usage occurs in rural areas. This is a reflection of the relative difficulty in obtaining ground water. Ground water exists in underground deposits known as aquifers, layers of porous rock in the Earth. As rainwater sinks into the ground it eventually reaches the aquifer where it is absorbed, much as a kitchen sponge absorbs water.

To obtain ground water, a well must be drilled down to the level of the aquifer, and then the water must be pumped to the surface. Aquifers occur at different depths in different areas, and the deeper the aquifer, the more difficult and more expensive it is to extract its water. Furthermore, if water is taken from an aquifer at a higher rate than it is recharged naturally, its level will drop, necessitating ever deeper wells. This also creates problems with ground stability. As water is drained out of an aquifer, the ground naturally tends to sink and compress, leading to greater risk of subsidence and landslides. Since aquifers are fed through a slow acting system of drainage, they have much slower recharge rates than surface water resources and are easily overtaxed. Therefore, ground water is generally only used when surface water is unavailable, even though ground water is far more abundant.

Like surface water, ground water can also become polluted, although not as easily. The soil that water sinks through before reaching the aquifer acts as a natural filter, leaching out some of the pollutants. Furthermore, the lack of oxygen in the aquifer generally restricts the growth of bacteria, so most ground water can be utilized safely without treatment. However, pollution can enter an aquifer when pollution sources are buried underground, such as they are in landfills. In other areas, the presence of heavy metal, nearly all of which are highly toxic in the human body, may render ground water undrinkable.

51. According to paragraph 1, all of the following are true of fresh water EXCEPT:

A. It makes up a minute proportion of the world’s total water supply.

B. Its supply is endangered by the melting of the ice caps.

C. Much of it is unavailable for human use.

D. Its reliable supply is a growing problem in the world.

52. What is the source of most surface water?

A. Melting glaciers. B. Underground springs. C. Precipitation. D. Filtration of seawater.

53. Based on the information in paragraph 2, what can be inferred about most population center?

A. They have grown to sixes unsustainable by current water resources.

B. They always contribute to great levels of pollution in surface water.

C. They generally can be found in close proximity to a source of surface.

D. They are unable to cope with rising levels of bacteria in surface water.

54. The word prone in the passage is closest meaning to __________.

A. inclined B. experienced C. recognized D. associated

55. According to paragraph 2, what causes increases in bacteria in surface water?

A. The dumping of human and animal waste.

B. Increased industrial pollution.

C. Overexploitation of a surface water source.

D. Drops in the overall level of a surface water source.

56. The word porous in the passage is closest meaning to __________.

A. sodden B. permeable C. absorptive D. submerged

57. In paragraph 3, the author mentions the abundance of the ground water in order to ______

A. suggest that it may offer a solution to the world’s water needs.

B. explain the lack of surface water in many areas.

C. explain why it is only used in rural areas.

D. contrast with its relatively low usage by humans.

58. According to paragraph 4, increased danger of subsidence is caused by __________

A. the holes created by large numbers of wells.

B. the compression of water in an aquifer.

C. excessive drops in the level of an aquifer.

D. landsides beneath an aquifer.

59. According to paragraph 5, bacteria are generally not a concern in ground water because _____

A. heavy metals prevent their growth.

B. there is not enough air to support them.

C. they are filtered out before they reach the aquifer.

D. bacteria would make the water undrinkable.

60. Which of the following can be inferred from paragraph 5 about heavy metals?

A. They are generally water soluble. B. They cannot be filtered out of water.

C. They only occur in aquifers. D. They can be detected by their foul taste.


PART 3. For questions 61 - 70, read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, or C on your answer sheet to identify whether the statements are true, false or not given. (1.0 pt)


People appear to be born to compute. The numeral skills of children develop so early and so inexorably that it is easy to imagine an internal clock of mathematic maturity guiding their growth. Not long after learning to walk and talk, they can set the table with impressive accuracy - one plate, one knife, one spoon, one fork, for each of the five chairs. Soon they are capable of noting that have placed five knives, spoons, and forks on the table and a bit later, that this amounts to fifteen pieces of silverware. Having thus mastered addition, they move on to subtraction. It seems almost reasonable to expect that if a child were secluded on a desert island at birth and retrieved seven years later, he or she could enter a second-grade mathematics class without any serious problems of intellectual adjustment.

Of course, the truth is not so simple. This century, the work of cognitive psychologists has illuminated the subtle forms of daily learning on which intellectual progress depends. Children were observed as they slowly grasped - or, as the case might be, bumped into-concepts that adults take for granted, as they refused, for instance, to concede that quantity is unchanged as water pours from a short stout glass into a thin one. Psychologists have since demonstrated that young children, asked to count the pencils in a pile, readily report the number of blue or red pencils, but must be coaxed into finding the total. Such studies have suggested that the rudiments of mathematics are mastered gradually and with effort. They have also suggested that the very concept of abstract numbers- the idea of a oneness, a twoness, a threeness that applies to any class of objects and is a prerequisite for doing anything more mathematically demanding than setting a table- is itself far from innate.


61. What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. The development of mathematical ability in children

B. Trends in teaching mathematics to children

C. The use of mathematics in child psychology.

D. The fundamental concepts of mathematics that children must learn.

62. It can be inferred from the passage that children normally learn simple counting _______.

A. soon after they learn to talk B. by looking at the clock

C. when they begin to be mathematically mature D. after they reach second grade in school

63. The word illuminated in paragraph 2 is closet in meaning to __________.

A. illustrated B. clarified C. accepted D. lighted

64. The author implies that most small children believe that the quantity of water changes when it is transfered to a container of a different __________.

A. color B. quality C. shape D. weight

65. According to the passage, when small children were asked to count a pile of red and blue pencils, they __________.

A. counted the number of pencils of each color

B. guessed at the total number of pencils

C. counted only the pencils of their favorite colors.

D. subtracted the number of red pencils from the number of blue pencils

66. The word They in bold in paragraph 2 refers to __________.

A. studies B. mathematicians C. children D. pencils

67. The word prerequisite in bold in paragraph 2 is closet in meaning to __________.

A. reason B. theory C. requirement D. technique

68. The word itself in bold in paragraph 2 refers to __________.

A. the concept of abstract numbers B. the total

C. any class of objects D. setting a table

69. With which of the following statements would the author be LEAST likely to agree?

A. Children learn to add before they learn to subtract.

B. Children naturally and easily learn mathematics.

C. Most people follow the same pattern of mathematical development.

D. Mathematical development is subtle and gradual.

70. Where in the passage does the author give an example of a hypothetical experiment?

A. Line 3-7 B. Line 7-9 C. Line 11-14 D. Line 17-20


IV. WRITING (2.0 pts)

PART 1: Questions 71-80, finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed before it. There is an example at the beginning (0). (1.0 pt)

0. The last time I saw my sister was three years ago.

It's three years since I last saw my sister.


71. Thanks to Laura’s support, I was able to finish the project.

Had it_____________________________________________________________.

72. It might be a good idea to use honey instead of sugar.

Why _____________________________________________________________?

73. Experts think that all dogs evolved from wolves.

All dogs___________________________________________________________.

74. When I was young, I read a lot of comic books.

I used­ ____________________________________________________________.

75. Driving at that speed is dangerous, whether you are an experienced driver or not.

However__________________________________________________________.

76. I find his handwriting very hard to read.

I have ____________________________________________________________.

77. The only way to eliminate world terrorism is by untied opposition.

Only by__________________________________________________________.

78. Using public transport saves energy as well as reduces pollution.

Not only__________________________________________________________.

79. Vietnamese people celebrate Tet as the greatest occasion in a year.

It is Tet___________________________________________________________.

80. When you lie, some gestures can show you are lying.

Some gestures _____________________________________________________.


PART 2: Questions 81-90, combine given sentences as directed to make meaningful ones. There is an example at the beginning (0). (1.0 pt)


0. The film was very boring. I fell asleep. (so...that)

The film was so boring that I fell asleep.

81. Lucy paid a visit to the local orphanage. She then decided to donate part of her savings to the children there. (Using perfect participle)

­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­_____________________________________________________________________.

82. Everyone was surprised that the singer had very little money when he died. (Using relative pronoun which)

­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­_____________________________________________________________________.

83. Although it rained torrentially all day, we all enjoyed the excursion. (Using despite)

­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­_____________________________________________________________________.

84. "Shall I carry your suitcase, Lan?” said Nam. (Using reported speech with "to infinitive")

­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­_______________________ ______________________________________________.

85. They didn’t look after the children properly. (Using cleft sentence in passive voice)

­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­_____________________________________________________________________.

86. The reading table is in the corner of the room. I put my books on it. (Using relative clause with preposition)

­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­_____________________________________________________________________.

87. If you work harder now, you won't have to do so much later. (Using double comparison)

­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­_____________________________________________________________________.

88. She didn’t have breakfast. She feels hungry now. (Using conditional sentence)

­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­_____________________________________________________________________.

89. Only a few of the movies are suitable for the children. The movies are shown on Channel. (Using a reduced relative clause)

­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­_____________________________________________________________________.

90. Whether or not Tom speaks Spanish, I think he should still visit Madrid. (Using even if)

­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­_____________________________________________________________________.



___________THE END___________


ĐÁP ÁN

SỞ GIÁO DỤC & ĐÀO TẠO

QUẢNG NAM




Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH LỚP 11

Thời gian: 150 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)


HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM


LISTENING (2.0 pts)

Part 1: Questions 1-5 (5 câu x 0,2đ)

Questions 1- 5:


1. 8:30

2. reference books

3. children’s books

4. be repaired/ repair

5. be sold/ sell


Part 2: Questions 6-10. (5 câu x 0,2đ)


6.B

7.A

8.B

9.B

10.C


LEXICO- GRAMMAR (3.0 pts)

Questions 11-40 (30 câu x 0,1đ)


11

12

13

14

15

16

17

18

19

20

21

22

23

24

25

D

D

D

A

C

D

B

B

A

A

D

C

D

A

A


26

27

28

29

30

31

32

33

34

35

36

37

38

39

40

D

B

C

A

B

B

D

A

B

B

D

B

C

B

B



READING (3.0 pts)

Part 1. (10 câu x 0.1đ)

41

42

43

44

45

46

47

48

49

50

D

B

C

A

D

C

A

C

D

B

Part 2. (10 câu x 0,1 đ)

51

52

53

54

55

56

57

58

59

60

B

C

C

A

A

C

D

C

B

A

Part 3. ( 10 câu x 0,1 đ)

61

62

63

64

65

66

67

68

69

70

A

A

B

C

A

A

C

A

B

B



SECTION IV: WRITING (2.0 pts)

Part 1. (10 câu x 0,1đ)

71. Had it not been for Laura’s support, I would not have been able to finish the project.

or: Had it not been for Laura’s support, I could not have finished the project.

72. Why don't you/we try using honey instead of sugar?

or: Why don't you/we use honey instead of sugar?

73. All dogs are thought to have evolved from wolves.

74. I used to read a lot of comic books (when I was young).

75. However experienced a driver you are/ may be, driving at that speed is dangerous.

76. I have difficulty (in) reading his handwriting.

77. Only by united opposition can/will/could we eliminate world terrorism.

or: Only by united opposition can/will/could world terrorism be eliminated.

78. Not only does using public transport save energy but it also reduces pollution.

79. It is Tet that Vietnamese people celebrate as the greatest occasion in a year.

or: It is Tet that is celebrated as the greatest occasion in a year.

80. Some gestures can give you away when you lie.



Part 2. (10 câu x 0,1đ)

81. Having paid a visit to the local orphanage, Lucy decided to donate part of her savings to the children there.

82. The singer had very little money when he died, which surprised everyone.

83. Despite the torrential rain all day, we all enjoyed the excursion.

84. Nam offered to carry Lan's suitcase/ the suitcase for Lan.

85. It was the children that/ who weren't looked after properly.

86. The reading table on which I put my books is in the corner of the room.

87. The harder you work now, the less you will have to do later.

or: The harder you work now, the more you won't have to do later.

88. If she had had breakfast, she wouldn’t feel hungry now.

89. Only a few of the movies shown on Channel are suitable for the children.

90. Even if Tom doesn't speak Spanish, I think he should still visit Madrid.

Thank you for your cooperation!


Ngoài Đề Thi HSG Lớp 11 Môn Tiếng Anh (Olympic) Sở GD&ĐT Quảng Nam (Đề 1) Có Đáp Án – Tiếng Anh 11 thì các đề thi trong chương trình lớp 11 sẽ được cập nhật liên tục và nhanh nhất có thể sau khi kỳ thi diễn ra trên Danh mục Kho Đề Thi nhằm giúp các bạn đọc thuận tiện trong việc tra cứu và đối chiếu đáp án. Quý thầy cô và các bạn đọc có thể chia sẻ thêm những tài liệu học tập hữu ích đến địa chỉ email của chúng tôi, nhằm xây dựng nên kho đề thi phong phú, đa dạng cho các em học sinh tham khảo và rèn luyện.

Chào mừng đến với Đề Thi HSG môn Tiếng Anh (Olympic) lớp 11, đề số 1, do Sở GD&ĐT Quảng Nam tổ chức. Đây là một cuộc thi dành cho các học sinh giỏi trong môn Tiếng Anh, nhằm thử thách và đánh giá khả năng của các bạn về ngữ pháp, từ vựng, đọc hiểu và kỹ năng viết.

Đề thi này sẽ bao gồm các phần kiểm tra như Ngữ pháp và Từ vựng, Đọc hiểu và Viết. Bạn sẽ phải áp dụng kiến thức về ngữ pháp và từ vựng để hoàn thành các câu trắc nghiệm, hiểu và trả lời câu hỏi về các đoạn văn, và biểu đạt ý kiến, quan điểm cá nhân thông qua viết một đoạn văn.

Đề thi HSG Tiếng Anh (Olympic) lớp 11 đề số 1 sẽ giúp các bạn rèn kỹ năng ngôn ngữ và trau dồi kiến thức trong môn Tiếng Anh. Đề thi đi kèm với đáp án chi tiết và phân tích từng câu hỏi, giúp bạn tự kiểm tra kết quả và nắm vững kiến thức của mình.

Chúng tôi hy vọng rằng Đề Thi HSG Tiếng Anh (Olympic) lớp 11, đề số 1, do Sở GD&ĐT Quảng Nam tổ chức, sẽ giúp các bạn nâng cao trình độ Tiếng Anh và có kết quả tốt trong kỳ thi này!

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