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Đề Thi Khảo Sát HSG Tiếng Anh 9 THCS Nga Thắng 2020-2021 Có Đáp Án

Đề Thi Khảo Sát HSG Tiếng Anh 9 THCS Nga Thắng 2020-2021 Có Đáp Án được Trang Tài Liệu sưu tầm với các thông tin mới nhất hiện nay. Đề thi này sẽ giúp các em học sinh ôn tập, củng cố kiến thức, rèn luyện kĩ năng làm bài. Cũng như hỗ trợ thầy cô trong quá trình giảng dạy. Hy vọng những tài liệu này sẽ giúp các em trong quá trình ôn luyện và đạt kết quả cao trong bài thi sắp tới.

Môn Tiếng Anh là một trong những môn học quan trọng và được đánh giá cao trong chương trình giáo dục phổ thông. Để giúp các em học sinh rèn luyện và cải thiện kỹ năng Tiếng Anh của mình, trường THCS Nga Thắng đã tổ chức kỳ thi khảo sát HSG Tiếng Anh lớp 9 với nhiều dạng bài tập khác nhau và đầy đủ đáp án.

Đề thi HSG Tiếng Anh lớp 9 của trường THCS Nga Thắng năm học 2020-2021 là một bài kiểm tra quan trọng và toàn diện, giúp các em học sinh rèn luyện các kỹ năng cần thiết như từ vựng, ngữ pháp, đọc hiểu và viết. Với sự chuẩn bị và rèn luyện kỹ càng, các em học sinh có thể đạt được kết quả tốt trong kỳ thi khảo sát HSG Tiếng Anh lớp 9.

Nếu bạn đang chuẩn bị cho kỳ thi HSG Tiếng Anh lớp 9, đề thi HSG Anh 9 là một tài liệu tham khảo hữu ích giúp bạn nắm rõ định hướng và đánh giá khả năng của mình. Trong bài viết này, chúng tôi sẽ giới thiệu về đề thi khảo sát HSG Tiếng Anh lớp 9 của trường THCS Nga Thắng năm học 2020-2021, cùng với đầy đủ đáp án. Hãy cùng đọc và tìm hiểu nhé!

Dưới đây là bản đọc trực tuyến giúp thầy cô và các em học sinh có thể nghiên cứu Online hoặc bạn có thể tải miễn phí với phiên bản word để dễ dàng in ấn cũng như học tập Offline

LẦN 2

TRƯỜNG THCS NGA THẮNG

ĐỀ THI KHẢO SÁT HSG LỚP 9

Năm học: 2020- 2021

Môn thi: Tiếng Anh – Lớp 9

Ngày thi: ….. tháng 10 năm 2020

Thời gian: 150 phút (Không kể thời gian giao đề)

Đề thi gồm: 05 trang


PART A: LISTENING (15pts)

I. Listen to the talk about men and apes, and then complete each sentence with NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS

1. Men and apes differ little in their________________

2. Like apes, men have no_____________________

3. Both men and apes have ____________instead of claws and hooves.

4. Both apes and men differ from other animals in having_____________

5. Apes can make and use simple tools. Only man, however, can___________

II. You will hear Peter Walsh being interviewed for a job. Listen and choose the correct answer for each question.

6. How long has he been in his present job?

A. Since 2005 B. For three months

C. For about three years. D. For three weeks

7. Why does he want a new job?

A. For a change B. To get promotion

C. To see new friends D. To earn more money

8. What does he like most about his job?

A. The right to take action and make decisions B. His colleagues

C. Working conditions D. High salary

9. What kind of person are they looking for?

A. Someone prepare to work overtime B. Someone who is punctual

C. Someone who wants to get on D. Someone who is helpful

10. What qualifications does Peter have?

A. Degree B. A school leaving certificate

C. A postgraduate diploma D. Certificate of law

III. You will hear an expert talking about deserts, what they are and how they are formed. Listen to his talk and decide whether statements are true (T) or false (F).


T

F

11. In a desert, everything is hard.



12. Only trees with hard needles can grow in deserts.



13. Space seems to have no limit in the desert.



14. Nature causes the change in the size and location of the world’s deserts.



15. Rabbits are one of the agents that help make deserts in Australia.




PART B: PHONETCICS (5 pts)

I- Circle the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others in the group.

  1. A. sacrificed B. laughed C. helped D. supposed

  2. A. double B. courageous C. cousin D. country

  3. A. houses B. faces C. horses D. sources

II- Circle the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.

  1. A- variety B- derivative C- establish D- intimate

  2. A- biligual B- immersion C- flexible D- obedient


PART C: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (35 points)

I- Circle the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

  1. He is not exactly rich but he ceraitnly earns enough to ____________.

A- get on B- get up C- get down D- get by

  1. Do you ___________ your new classmates?

A- face up to B- keep up with C- get on with D- look forward to

  1. It is a truth that dogs can hear and see ___________ better than humans.

A- very B- far more C- a lot D- much more

  1. The writer could not be at the ceremony, and his wife accepted his prize on his ________.

A- absence B- rememberance C- behalf D-reminder

  1. The optic fiber was a major ___________ in the field of telecommunications.

A- breakdown B- breakthrough C- revolution D- technique

  1. Its programs emphasize developing community-level services to promote the health and ________ of children.

A- well-balanced B- well-being C- well-built D- well-developed

  1. ___________ travelling is educational, it can also be stressful and expensive.
    A- Since B- Providing C- While D- As though

  2. We nust have more time to relax after these exams, _________?

A- needn’t we B- haven’t we C-mustn’t we D- aren’t we

  1. We were ___________a mile of our destination when we ran out of petrol

A. harldy B. inside C only D within

  1. Nam: “You are a great dancer, Huong!” - Huong: “ ______________”

  1. There’s no doubt about it B- You shouldn’t have said that

C- You must be kidding D- Yes. Congratulations.

II- Write the correct tense or form of the verbs in brackets.

  1. We (arrange)___________ to meet at 8:00 p.m tomorrow.

  2. Since his wife died, he has taken to (smoke)___________ a lot.

  3. She still has nightmares from (lock up) __________ in a small dark cupboard for hours.

  4. Did you remember (book) ___ seats? – Oh, no, I forgot. I will telelphone for them now.

  5. We hope (invite) ____________to the discussions with the company.

  6. You are (take) ____________over my business while I go away.

  7. Ice (turn) ___________to water if you heat it.

  8. I’ll phone you at 8 o’clock. – No, I (watch)____________ a football match then.

  9. Sorry about the noise we made last night. We (have) _____________a party.

  10. Louisa is still in Palma, so you (not see) ______________her at the party last night.

III- Supply the correct form of the words in brackets.

  1. So people are being ___________ in the surburbs and have to comute to work. (HOUSE)

  2. Last week he offered the boss his ___________. (RESIGN)

  3. The result was very strange! In fact it was ___________. (BELIEF)

  4. Barry always does his hair with a __________in the middle. (PART)

  5. The car in front braked __________and I ran into it. (EXPECT)

  6. Alex usually __________Diana at the piano when she sings. (COMPANY)

  7. Of course it's a daffodil! It's shape and colour are ___________. (MISTAKE)

  8. You cant open the top unless you ____________it first. (SCREW)

  9. The soldier was accused of ____________because he ran away. (COWARD)

  10. I find computers rather cold and _____________. (PERSON)

IV- Find and correct the mistake in each sentence.

1. Compared with numbers fifty years ago, there are twice more students in college today.

2. Sally must have called her sister last night, but she arrived too late to call her.

3. It's very difficult to compute how much does an item cost in dollars when one is accustomed to calculating in another monetary system.

4. If Sally had not attended the meeting, she never would meet her old friend, whom she had not seen in years.

5. Writers like William Shakespeare and Edgar Allan Poe are not only prolific but too interesting.

PART D: READING COMPREHENSION (25 points)

I- Fill in each blank with one suitable word.

One of the main problems facing the environmental movements is that it may become a victim of its own success. It is now generally accepted that issues such as global warning need to be (1) ___________with seriously, and that the Scandinavian forests are being destroyed (2) ____________ to the effects of (3) ____________rain. Views (4) _____________ these have now become an accepted part of the political scene, and consumers are constantly bombarded with green or (5) ______________friendly products. However, this does not mean that environmental groups can now afford to relax. On the (6)_______________, the green movement must consider how the momentum will (7) _____________sustained when the current enthusiasm has (8)______________ The environment must not be (9)______________ to fade from people’s minds, because the progress of ecological collapse has already been (10) _______________ in train, and so far very little has been done to reverse it.


II- Read the text and choose the best answer A, B, C or D to fill in the numbered blanks.

The computer is undoubtedly one of the most (1) ............ and important inventions of the twentieth century. Boring or time-consuming jobs which, in the past, would have been (2) ............ by hundreds of workers can now be done by one small computer. However, the (3) ............ of the computer has not been entirely problem-free. Many people feel that we are already too (4) ............ on computers. They think that computers themselves are (5) ............ too powerful, and that people are no longer in control of them.

One of the problems with a computer is that, like any other machines, it can (6) ............ If a computer is (7) ............, the information it is storing can be lost. If a computer program has a(n) (8) ............ in it, the computer’s calculation can be seriously (9) ............ . A faulty program in a hospital or police computer could (10) . ............ terrible mistakes.

1. A- shocking B- amazing C- astonishing D- surprising

2. A- done out B- made out C- carried out D- figured out

3. A- usage B- experiment C- introduction D- operation

4. A- dependent B- based C- influenced D- carried

5. A- becoming B- getting C- running D- turning

6. A- break up B- break down C- break into D- break out

7. A- changed B- modified C- contaminated D- damaged

8. A- foul B- abnormality C- wrongdoing D- error

9. A- devalued B- affected C- fooled D- broken

10. A- do B- produce C- find D- cause


III -Read the text and choose the correct phrase or clause A, B, C, or D to complete the sentences or answer the questions.

Speed reading is not just a parlour trick you can use to impress your friends and family. For many, it's a necessary tool for managing time and information in the fast-paced business world; and for many others, specifically students, it's the only way to get through reading-heavy class loads.

The practiced speed reader can pick up a lengthy document or a thick stack of paper and use their skill to get the meat of their subject by skimming for the most important details and information. Without developing the ability to speed read, this time-saving technique is merely flipping through pages fast.

Speed reading, or increasing the rate at which you read text, is linked to increasing the rate at which you understand what you’re reading. The key to successful speed reading is increasing your understanding of the text as you increase the rate at which you read the words. This natural step takes training and practice, but don’t be intimidated by the idea of a challenge. Once you've mastered it, it's a skill that will stick with you for the rest of your life. With continued practice, common words and sentence structures became more familiar and because your brain was tuned and ready, your eyes started taking in blocks of words at a time. The difference between average readers and speed readers is in the blocks of words their eyes take in at one time. The larger the blocks, the faster your eyes move through the text.

Speed reading teaches you how to take your reading and your comprehension to the next level. The techniques used in teaching speed reading focus on your individual abilities, namely

where you are right now and what might be keeping you from progressing. For example, if you are a slow reader, factors that hold you back may include, but are not limited to, moving your lips or reading out loud or holding the text too close to your eyes. If you are in the practice of moving your lips, or speaking or whispering while you read, you're slowing yourself down dramatically.

Your lips can only move so fast. You should be able to read at least two or three times faster than you can speak. In effect, you’re keeping yourself at that word-by-word stage that children generally grow out of in elementary school.

Having the ability to speed read can make a significant difference in your life, especially if reading is a strong component of your work. Implementing thực hiện some simple techniques can get you reading faster and more efficiently in no lime at all.

(From Understanding Speed Reading by Brandon C.Hall)

1 What does the passage mainly discuss?

A The practice of speed reading B Features of speed reading

C. The use of speed reading in studies D. Various roles of speed reading

2: According to the passage, why is speed reading useful for students?

A. They have problems collecting information. B. They can impress their friends.

C. They have difficulty managing their time. D. They have a lot of reading to do.

3: According to the passage, what happens if the reader does not develop their capacity to speed read?

A. Readers cannot get the gist of what they have read.

B. Readers cannot increase the rate of understanding what they are reading.

C. Speed reading means flipping pages as fast as possible.

D. Speed reading may prevent them from understanding what you have read.

4: What is the difference between an average reader and a speed reader?

A. The average reader recognizes more familiar words.

B. The average reader understands fewer words at a time.

C. The average reader takes in bigger blocks at one time.

D. The average reader moves faster through the text.

5: The word "dramatically" in line 23 is closest in meaning to.........

A. quickly B. ordinarily C. considerately D. considerably


PART E: WRITING (20 points)

I- Rewrite the following sentences, beginning as shown so that their meaning stay the same.

  1. I find his clothes the most irritating about him.

  • What _________________________________________________________.

  1. Her success went beyond her expectation.

  • Never ________________________________________________________.

  1. You won’t find a more dedicated worker anywhere than Mrs . Jones.

  • Nowhere ______________________________________________________.

  1. Our picnic was cancelled because it rained heavily last Sunday.

  • If it ___________________________________________________________.

  1. The Times” was first printed 200 years ago.

  • It is ____________________________________________________________.

II- Rewrite the sentences, using the words given in brackets so that their meaning stay the same.

  1. The painting is worth $25,000. (VALUED)

  • ________________________________________________________________.

  1. I don’t personally care if they come or not. (MATTER)

  • ________________________________________________________________.

  1. We’d better leave them a note, because it’s possible they’ll arrive later. (CASE)

  • _________________________________________________________________.

  1. Despite his age, he’s still working. (RETIRED)

  • _________________________________________________________________.

  1. The accident wasn’t his fault. (BLAME)

  • _________________________________________________________________.

III- Paragraph writing (10 pts).

During the time we had to stay at home due to the covid-19 pandemic, studying online was the best choice for students and schools. From your point of view, write a paragraph of 150 words about the advantages and disadvantages of studying online.


…………….. THE END ……………..













ĐÁP ÁN:

PART A. LISTENING

I/ Listen to the talk about men and apes, and then complete each sentence with NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS. (5pts)

  1. body structure 2. tail 3. hands and feet 4. large brains 5. make a plan

II/ You will hear Peter Walsh being interviewed for a job. Listen and choose the correct answer for each question. (5pts)

6. C 7.B 8.A 9.A 10.A

III. You will hear an expert talking about deserts, what they are and how they are formed. Listen to his talk and decide whether the statements are true (T) or false (F). (5pts)

11. T 12.F 13.T 14.F 15.T


PART B: PHONETCICS

I- Circle the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others in the group. (3 pts)

1-D 2- B 3- A

II- Circle the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions. (2 pts)

1-D 2- C


PART C: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR – 35 points

I- Circle the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions . (10pts)

1- D 2- C 3- C 4- C 5- B

6- B 7- C 8- A 9- D 10- C

II- Write the correct tense or form of the verbs in brackets. (10 points)

1- have arranged 2- smoking 3- having been locked up 4- to book

5- to be invited 6- to take 7- turns 8- will be watching

9- were having 10- can’t have seen

III- Supply the correct form of the words in brackets. (10 points)

1- housed 2- resignation 3- unbelievable 4- parting

5- unexpectedly 6- accompanies 7- unmistakable 8- unscrew

9- cowardice 10- impersonal

IV- Find and correct the mistake in each sentence. (5 points)

1. twice more

twice as

2. must

should

3. how much does an item cost in dollars

how much an item costs in dollars

4. never would meet

would never have met

5. but too

but also


PART D: READING COMPREHENSION – 30 points

I- Fill in each blank with one suitable word. (10points)

1. dealt

2. due

3. acid

4. like

5. environmentally

6. contrary

7. be

8. passed

9. allowed/ permitted

10. set


II- Read the text and choose the best answer A, B, C or D to fill in the numbered blanks. (10points)

  1. B 2- C 3- A 4- A 5- A

6- B 7- D 8- D 9- B 10- D

III -Read the text and choose the correct phrase or clause A, B, C, or D to complete the sentences or answer the questions. (10points)

  1. B 2- D 3- B 4- B 5- D

PART E: WRITING – 20 points

I- A-Rewrite the following sentences, beginning as shown so that their meaning stay the same.(5pts)

1- What I find the most irritating about him is his clothes.

  1. Never had she expected she was so successful. / Never had she expected such success.

  2. Nowhere will// can you find a more dedicated worker than Mrs Jones.

  3. If it hadn’t been for the heavy rain, our picnic wouldn’t have been cancelled last Sunday.

  4. It is 200 years ago since “The Times” was first printed.

B- Rewrite the sentences, using the words given in brackets so that their meaning stay the same. (5pts)

  1. The painting has been valued at $ 25,000.

  2. It doesn’t matter to me whether they come or not.

  3. We’d better leave them a note in case they arrive later.

  4. He still has not retired despite his age.

  5. He wasn’t to blame for the accident.

II- Paragraph writing (10 pts).

Marking criteria: giám khảo căn cứ mức độ hoàn thành bài viết của thí sinh, đối chiếu với hướng dẫn sau đây để cho điểm:

  • Task completion: 3 points

thí sinh hoàn thành bài viết với nội dung và số lượng từ yêu cầu cho từ 2-3 points

  • Vocabulary and grammar: 2 points

từ vựng và ngữ pháp phong phú , ít lặp lại cho từ 1-2 points

  • Speling mistakes and grammar mistakes: 3 points

Dưới 5 lỗi cho 3 points, 5- 8 lỗi cho 2 points, trên 9-10 lỗi cho 1 point, trên 10 lỗi ko cho điểm phần này.

  • Coherence and cohesion: 2 points

Bài viết mạch lạc, có tính liên kết tốt cho tối đa 2 points, nếu sự mạch lạc, liên kết quá kém không cho điểm.

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM


Tổng số points

Tổng điểm toàn bài =

5

Điểm toàn bài được làm tròn đến 0,25

Trong chương trình giáo dục phổ thông, môn Tiếng Anh đóng vai trò vô cùng quan trọng trong việc phát triển kỹ năng ngôn ngữ cho các em học sinh. Và để tăng cường đào tạo và phát triển những học sinh tiềm năng, các trường THCS thường tổ chức kỳ thi khảo sát HSG Tiếng Anh.

Trong đó, đề thi khảo sát HSG Tiếng Anh 9 THCS Nga Thắng năm học 2020-2021 là một trong những bài kiểm tra quan trọng, đánh giá toàn diện khả năng ngôn ngữ Tiếng Anh của các em học sinh lớp 9. Đề thi này gồm nhiều dạng bài tập, từ vựng, ngữ pháp và kỹ năng đọc hiểu, viết, giúp các em rèn luyện và nâng cao khả năng sử dụng ngôn ngữ Tiếng Anh.

Để giúp các em học sinh đạt được kết quả tốt trong kỳ thi khảo sát HSG Tiếng Anh, trường THCS Nga Thắng đã chuẩn bị đầy đủ đề thi và đáp án cho các em tham khảo và ôn luyện. Với sự nỗ lực và cố gắng rèn luyện, các em học sinh có thể vượt qua được mọi thử thách của đề thi HSG Tiếng Anh 9.

Đề thi học sinh giỏi Tiếng Anh lớp 9 không chỉ là một cơ hội để các em thể hiện khả năng của mình, mà còn giúp các em học sinh rèn luyện và phát triển kỹ năng Tiếng Anh. Chúng tôi hy vọng, thông qua việc tham khảo đề thi HSG Anh 9 và các đáp án liên quan, các em học sinh sẽ có được cơ hội nâng cao trình độ Tiếng Anh của mình và đạt được kết quả tốt trong học tập.

Ngoài Đề Thi Khảo Sát HSG Tiếng Anh 9 THCS Nga Thắng 2020-2021 Có Đáp Án  thì các đề thi trong chương trình lớp 9 sẽ được cập nhật liên tục và nhanh nhất có thể sau khi kỳ thi diễn ra trên Danh mục Kho Đề Thi nhằm giúp các bạn đọc thuận tiện trong việc tra cứu và đối chiếu đáp án. Quý thầy cô và các bạn đọc có thể chia sẻ thêm những tài liệu học tập hữu ích đến địa chỉ email của chúng tôi, nhằm xây dựng nên kho đề thi phong phú, đa dạng cho các em học sinh tham khảo và rèn luyện.

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