Đề Thi Học Sinh Giỏi Tiếng Anh 6 Có Đáp Án Và File Nghe-Đề 13 – Tiếng Anh Lớp 6

ĐỀ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI

MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH, LỚP 6

Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)

HƯỚNG DẪN THÍ SINH LÀM BÀI THI

A. CẤU TẠO ĐỀ THI: Đề thi gồm có 5 phần:

SECTION 1. NGHE HIỂU (Listening) : 10 câu.

SECTION 2. NGỮ ÂM (Phonetics) : 5 câu.

SECTION 3. TỪ VỰNG VÀ NGỮ PHÁP (Lexico-grammar) : 30 câu.

SECTION 4. ĐỌC HIỂU (Reading): : 25 câu.

SECTION 5. VIẾT (Writing): : 10 câu

- 5 câu (viết lại câu sao cho nghĩa không đổi so với câu đã cho)

- 5 câu ( viết câu hoàn chỉnh, có thể thay đổi từ, cấu trúc cho phù hợp)

B. HƯỚNG DẪN THÍ SINH LÀM BÀI:

• Thí sinh làm toàn bộ bài thi trên đề thi theo yêu cầu của từng phần. Thí sinh phải viết câu trả lời vào phần trả lời được cho sẵn ở mỗi phần. Trái với điều này, phần bài làm của thí sinh sẽ không được chấm điểm.

• Đề thi gồm có 7 trang. Thí sinh phải kiểm tra số tờ đề thi trước khi làm bài.

• Thí sinh không được ký tên hoặc dùng bất cứ dấu hiệu gì để đánh dấu bài thi ngoài việc làm bài theo yêu cầu của đề ra. Không được viết bằng mực đỏ, bút chì, không viết hai thứ mực trên tờ giấy làm bài. Phần viết hỏng, ngoài cách dùng thước để gạch chéo, không được tẩy xóa bằng bất kỳ cách gì khác (kể cả bút xóa màu trắng). Trái với điều này bài thi sẽ bị loại.

• Thí sinh nên làm nháp trước rồi ghi chép cẩn thận vào phần bài làm trên đề thi. Giám thị sẽ không phát giấy làm bài thay thế đề và giấy làm bài do thí sinh làm hỏng.

• Giám thị không giải thích gì thêm về đề thi. Thí sinh không được sử dụng bất cứ tài liệu gì kể cả từ điển.

SECTION 1. LISTENING

I. Listen to the passage about the healthy eating pyramid and decide if these sentences are true or false. Write your T (true) or F (false) in the answer box.You will hear the recording twice. (1,25 points)

1. You mustn’t eat sweet and salty food.

2. Dairy products do not contain Calcium .

3. Beans and nuts are not important.

4. Dark bread and brown rice are great sources of whole grains.

5. Fruit and vegetables are low in calories and full of vitamins.

Write your answers (T or F) here:

1 ……....

2................

3...............

4...............

5.............

II. Listen to a passage about wild animals, then fill in the gaps with the missing information (ONE word or number) . Write your answers in the answer box You will hear the recording twice. (1,25 points)

Name	Giant Panda	Great Green Macaw	Southern Blufin Tuna
Type of animal	Mammal	..........(2).......	Fish
Size	150-180 centimetres long	80-90 centimetres long	Up to ...(4)....... centimetres long
Weight	81-151 kg	..........(3)...... kg	Up to 910 kg
Lives	Hills and ...(1)... in China	Rainforests	......(5).....

Write your answers here:

1 ……………..

2 ........................

3 .......................

4 ....................

5 .....................

SECTION 2: PHONETICS

III. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently. Write your answers in the space provided. (0,75 points)

1. A. honest	B. honor	C. hour	D. hobby
2. A. restaurant	B. sentence	C. festival	D. semester
3. A. garages	B. places	C. villages	D. nationalities

Write your answers here:

1………..

2..................

3.................

IV. Choose one word whose stress pattern is different from the others. (0,5 points)

1. A. engineer B. charpenter C. architect D. manager

2. A. nature

B. mountain

C. wardrobe

D. machine

Write your answers here:

1………..

2..................

SECTION 3. LEXICO - GRAMMAR

V. Choose the correct answer(s) to complete each of the following sentences. Write your answers in the space provided. There are some questions which has more than ONE correct answer.( 6,25 points)

1. I don’t like brown rice. Don’t you have ................................?

A. white ones

B. any white

C. no white

D. a white

2. Would you like .......................... that for you?

A. me doing

B. that I do

C. me do

D. me to do

3. Can you see any people in the house? .................................

A. Only a little

B. Only few

C. Only a few

D. Only little

4. It’s very hot. ..................... swimming?

A. Why don’t we go B. Let’s go C. What about go D. How to go

5. Lan’s father’s mother is her ..................... .

     A. grandparents      B. grandfather  C. grandmother            D. aunt

6. Six and three are..................... .

A. eighteen

B. three

C. nine

D. two

7. We usually write to each other ...................... .

A. every two weeks B. every week twice C. two every week D. none is correct

8. Which is ..................... of the two girls ?

A. tallest B. the tallest C. taller D. the taller

9. One of them ..................... an oval face.

A. have B. having C. has D. had.

10. ……is your uncle going to stay here? - ..................... about three days.

A. How long - For B. How far – For C. How long - At D. How long - From

11. My French pen pal, Jack can speak four ..................... fluently.

A. speeches B. countries C. languages D. nationalities

12. - Would you like something to drink? - ......................

A. Thank you. I’m full. B. No, I don’t like. C. No, thanks. D. Yes, I like.

13. Tom hates watching T.V. .....................does Peter.

A. So B. Too C. Neither D. Either

14. I have some home work. I..................... finish it before I play table tennis.

A. should to B. need to C. ought D. want

15. Traffic police never let you..................... without a ticket

A. go B. going C. to go D. gone

16. .....................is the capital of Great Britain.

A. Paris B. London C. New York D. England

17. .....................people go to the movies now than ten years ago.

A. Fewer B. Few C. Less D. Lesser

18. Some scientists spend most of their lives ........................ at rocks.

A. looking B. look C. to look D. looked

19. People in Asia often drink ..................... .

A. some tea B. the tea C. tea D. many tea

20. Why don’t we go to the zoo? - ...................... .

A. Because I’m going B. Let’s drive there C. That sounds great. D. That’s a good idea

21. This is my book and ..................... .

A. those are your

B. that are your

C. that are yours

D. those are yours

22. Kyoko wants to make .....................with the other students in the class.

A. friend B. friends C. friendly D. friendship

23. ..................... care when you bring that dish. It’s hot.

A. Be B. Have C. Make D. Take

24. My sister has .....................lamp in her room.

A. a beautiful old Indian B . an old beautiful Indian

C. a beautiful Indian old D. An Indian old beautiful

25. What’s your birthday, Ann?

A. on the thirty-one of July B. on the thirty-first of July

C. on July the thirty-one D. in July the thirty-first

Write your answers (A, B, C or D) here

1 ………..	2...................	3....................	4...................	5................
6 ………..	7...................	8....................	9...................	10..............
11 ….…...	12.................	13.................	14.................	15...............
16 …………	17…………...	18……………	19……………	20…………
21…………	22………….	23…………	24…………..	25………….

VI. There is one mistake in each sentence. Identify the mistake and write your answers in the space provided. (1,25 points)

1. I would like buying a packet of tea and a tube of toothpaste.

A B C D

2. My classmates always have a picnic two a year.

A B C D

3. Do you know how many teachers does your school have?

A B C D

4. These color televisions are too expensive for we to buy at this time.

A B C D

5. We like watching TV at night but our parents lovesreading newspapers.

A B C D

Write your answers here:

1……………

2……………

3…………

4……………

5………..

SECTION 4. READING

VII. Choose A, B, C or D to fill in the blank. (2,5 points)

Dear Hanh,

I’m writing to invite you to a party we ............... (1) at the flat next Friday, December 14th. As you know, ................(2) Lan’s 13th birthday next week and my birthday next month, ............... (3) we thought we’d celebrate together and have a joint party.

I can’t remember if you know my address or not, but anyway, if you .............(4) the direction below, you shouldn’t get lost. Take the Number 15 bus from the station and ................... (5) at the Star Hotel. Walk down Long Viet Road, past the DanChu Cinema, and then ..................(6) the first turning on the right. That’s LeLoi Road. Turn left ............... (7) the first junction, then go straight past the church as far as the next crossroads. ..............(8) and our block of flats is the second on the right.

Do try and come. Of course you’re ........ (9) to bring someone with you if you want to.

Look forward .............................. (10) you then!

1. A. have B. are having C. going to have D. will has

2. A. it’s B. its C. they’re D. she’s

3. A. too B. but C. because D. so

4. A. to follow B. follow C. following D. follows

5. A. get up B. get by C. get on D. get off

6. A. have B. get C. take D. bring

7. A. in B. at C. of D. on

8. A. Right turn B. To right C. To turn D. Turn right

9. A. welcomed B. welcome C. welcoming D. to welcome

10. A. to see B. for seeing C. of seeing D. to seeing

Write your answers here:

1 ……….....	2...................	3....................	4..................	5................
6 ……….....	7...................	8....................	9..................	10...............

VIII. Read the following passage then answer the questions below. (10 pts)

Every year people in many countries learn English. Some of them are young children. Others are teenagers. Many are adults. Some learn at school. Others study by themselves. A few learn English just by hearing the language in films, on television, in the office or among their friends. Most people must work hard to learn English.

Why do all these people learn English? It’s not difficult to answer this question. Many boys and girls learn English at school because it is one of their subjects. Many adults learn English because it is useful for their work. Teenagers often learn English for their higher studies because some of their books are in English at the college or university. Other people learn English because they want to read newspapers or magazines in English.

1. According to the writer. English is learned by_________.

A. young children B. adults C. teenagers D. all are correct

2. In the line 2 of the second part, the word “it” refers to_________.

A. country B. young children C. English D. question

3. Where do many boys and girls learn English?

A. at home B. at school C. in evening classes D. in the office

4. Why do adults learn English?

A. Because they want to see movies in English B. Because they need it for their job.

C. Because they are forced to learn it D. Because it’s not difficult to learn.

5. What of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?

A. Children like reading English newspapers B. People in many countries learn English

C. English is one subject in school. D. Some books are written in English.

Write your answers here:

1 …………

2...................

3.........................

4........................

5.....................

IX. Fill in each numbered blank with ONE suitable word. (2,5 points)

Football is the most popular game in Britain. You can see that if you go to (1)................. of the important matches. Young and old people shout and cheer (2) ............. one side of the other. Nearly every school (3)................. . its football team and every boy in Britain (4)............. much about games. He can tell you the name of the (5)................. in most important teams. He has a picture of (6).............. and knows the results of many matches.

In Britain the football season (7) ................. in the middle of August, usually (8) ............ the second saturday in April. At the beginning of the (9). all the school teams and the professional teams (40) . very hard. They want to win their matches.

Write your answers here:

1 ……….....	2...................	3....................	4..................	5................
6 ……….....	7...................	8....................	9..................	10...............

SECTION 5. WRITING

X. Rewrite the sentences as suggested keeping its meaning unchanged (1,25points)

1. Antarctica is colder than any other place in the world

• Antarctica is ___________________________________

1. Doing exercises every morning is good for you.

• It ____________________________________________

1. Lan likes playing tennis the most.

• Tennis ________________________________________

4. Do you enjoy listening to music?

• Are you interested ___________________________________

5. Whose new schoolbag is this?

• Who _________________________________________

XI. Making full sentences using the words given. Make the changes and additions if necessary. (1,25points)

1. Discovery Channel / make / funny education / children / over / world.

……………………………………………………………………………………….

2. Students/ our school/ take part/ a lot/ outdoor activity.

……………………………………………………………………………………….

3. summer / we / swimming / my friends / weekend / winter / we / often / ice skating.……………………………………………………………………………………….

4. It/ necessary/ we/ be/ present/ class discussions/ Saturdays.……………………………………………………………………………………….

5. That boy / the / intelligent / our class.……………………………………………………………………………………….

The end

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM THI

MÔN: Tiếng Anh 6

SECTION 1. LISTENING

I. Listen to the passage about the healthy eating pyramid and decide if these sentences are true or false. Write your T (true) or F (false) in the answer box.You will hear the recording twice.

(5 x 0,25 = 1,25 points)

1. F

2.F

3.F

4.T

5.T

II. Part 2: Listen to a man talking about his meal in a restaurant and complete the menu.( 1,25 points )

(5 x 0,25 = 1,25 points)

1. mountains

2.bird

3.1

4.430

5. oceans

SECTION 2: PHONETICS

III. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently. Write your answers in the space provided. (3 x 0,25 = 0,75 points)

1.D

2. D

3.D

IV. Choose the word that has the stress pattern different from that of the other words. Identify your answer by circling the corresponding letter A, B, C, or D. (5 x 2 = 0,5 points)

1. A

2.D

SECTION 3. LEXICO - GRAMMAR

V. Choose the best answer to complete each sentence, identify your answer by circling the corresponding letter A, B, C, or D. (6,25 points).

(25 x 0,25 = 6,25 points)

1. B	2. D	3. C	4. A	5. C
6. C	7. A	8. D	9. C	10. A
11. C	12. C	13.A	14. B	15. A
16. B	17. A	18. A	19. C	20. C D
21. D	22. B	23. D	24. A	25. B

VI. There is one mistake in each sentence. Identify the mistake and write your answers in the space provided. (1,25 points)

(5 x 0,25 = 1,25 points)

1. B

2. D

3. D

4. C

5. C

SECTION 4: READING.

VII. ChooseA, B, C or D to fill in the blank. (10 x 0,25 = 2,5 points)

1. B	2. A	3. D	4. B	5. D
6. C	7. B	8. D.	9. B	10. D.

VIII. Read the text and choose the best answer.

(5 x 0,25 = 1,25 points)

1. D

2. C

3. B

4. B

5. A

IX. Fill in each numbered blank with ONE suitable word.

(10 x 0,25 = 2,5 points)

1. one	2. for	3.has	4. knows	5. players/footballers
6. them/players	7. begins/starts	8. on	9. season	10. train/work/practise

SECTION 5. WRITING

X. Rewrite the sentences as suggested keeping its meaning unchanged (1,25points)

1. Antartica is the coldest (place) in the world.

2. It is good for you to do exercises every morning.

3. Tennis is Lan’s favourite sport.

4. Are you interested in listening to music?

5. Who does this new school bag belong to?/ Who is the owner of this new school bag?

XI. Making full sentences using the words given. Make the changes and additions if necessary. (1,25points)

1. Discovery Channel makes funny education for children all over the world.

2.Students in our school take part in a lot of outdoor activities.

3. In summer, we go swimming with my friends at weekend and in winter, we often go ice skating.

4. It isnecessary for us to be present at the class discussions on Saturdays.

5. That boy is the most intelligent (person/ pupil/ student/ one) our class.

Total mark = 20 points.

_____The end_____