Đề Thi Giữa Kì 1 Anh 9 Năm Học 2022-2023 Siêu Hay (Đề 4) Có Đáp Án
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Đề Thi Giữa Kì 1 Anh 9 Năm Học 2022-2023 Siêu Hay (Đề 4) Có Đáp Án – Tiếng Anh Lớp 9 là tài liệu học tập được Trang Tài Liệu biên soạn và sưu tầm từ những nguồn dữ liệu mới nhất hiện nay. Tài liệu này sẽ giúp các em luyện tập, củng cố kiến thức từ đó nâng cao điểm số cho môn học. Ngoài ra, cũng giúp các thầy cô giáo có nguồn tài nguyên phong phú để giảng dạy.
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KIỂM TRA GIỮA KỲ I – NĂM HỌC 2022 – 2023 (ĐỀ 4)
I. Chọn từ có cách đọc khác ở phần gạch chân
1. A. finished B. looked C. landed D. mixed
2. A. where B. what C. which D. whose
3. A. much B. church C. chemistry D. cheerful
4. A. days B. lays C. says D. plays
5. A. driven B. mine C. life D. drive
II. Chọn đáp án đúng cho các câu sau:
6. How did Mary use to go to school …… she ……. a primary school girl ?
A. when/ is B. when/ was C. since/ was D. for/ is
7. Jane and her family have lived in Glasgow ……. 5 years.
A. until B. for C. about D. since
8. If you ……. good qualifications, you …….. a good job.
A. have/ will have B. would have/ have C. had/ will have D. have had/’d have
9. This is the house where Hoa …… and ……. up.
A. bom/ grew B. was bom/ grown C. bears/ grows D. was born/ grew
10. He began his ……. career and settled in Paris in 1995.
A. written B. writing C. write D. wrote
11. His last job was a bank manager, ………
A. wasn’t it ? B. was it ? C. wasn’t he ? D. would not be it ?
12. Everyday I go to work ……. bus …….. 6 o’clock in the morning.
A. by ….. at B. with ….. at C. by ….. by D. by a ….. at
13. She was …… the present on her 14th birthday.
A. giving B. gave C. to give D. given
14. Wearing uniforms helps students feel equal in many ways …… they are rich or poor.
A. whether B. even C. although D. however
15. We are going to have …… course of English in England.
A. a two year B. a two years C. two year D. two years
16. Cambridge University …… in the 12th century.
A. was founded B. has founded C. had founded D. would be founded
17. She has lost her hand bag. She can’t find it …….
A. everywhere B. anywhere C. wherever D. where
18. He drove ….. and had an accident.
A. fast B. carelessly C. carefully D. Both A, B are correct
19. I wish …… rivers and lakes in my hometown.
A. there were B. there are C. would be D. there will be
20. They are going …… a new hospital in the area.
A. to be building B. to build C. building D. to be built
21. First, she asked me what ………, and where I came from.
A. my name is B. was my name C. my name was D. is your name
22. This lesson …… carefully.
A. learned B. must be learning C. must learn D. must be learned
23. Computer is one of the most important ……. of the 20th century.
A. inventions B. inventings C. invented things D. invention
24. Opposite our house in a nice park …… there are trees and flowers.
A. which B. in it C. whose D. where
Choose A,B,C orD to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges .
25.Nam brings to class a new picture she has painted
-Lien:”What a wonderful picture!”-Mary: “____________________”
A.I’m very proud of it B.It’s nice of you to say so
C.You don’t need to say so D.Of couse,Ithink so
26.Peter and Susan are at the school canteen.
Susan:-“Would you like some chocolate ice cream ?”
Peter: “_____________________”
A.Yes,let’s. B.Yes,please. C.I think so. D.Here you are.
Choose the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following sentences.
27. Many people use public transport to minimize air pollution
A. reduce B. increase C. save D. cause
28. Last Sunday,we went on a picnic and enjoyed the great feeling we had never had before
A. awful B.terrible C. bad D. wonderful
Choose the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following sentences.
29.The law protects ancient monuments and old churches.
A. modern B. old C. traditional D. historic
30. The man opened the door and walked in.
A.closed B. knocked C. pulled D. pushed
III. Chọn câu viết lại có nghĩa tương đương với câu cho trước:
31. “Do you like Pop music ?”
A. She asked me if I liked Pop music ? B. She asked me if liked Pop music
C. She asked me whether if I liked Pop music ? D. She asked me whether I liked Pop music ?
32. They will translate this book into English.
A. This book will be translated into English. B. This book will translate into English.
C. This book will be translate into English. D. They will bring this book to England.
33. It’s two years since I last met her.
A. I haven’t met her since two years ago. B. I met her for two years ago.
C. I haven’t met her for two years. D. I’ve known her for two years.
34. He failed the exam because he didn’t work hard.
A. He failed the exam, so he didn’t work hard. B. He failed the exam if he didn’t work hard.
C. He didn’t work hard, so he failed the exam. D. He didn’t work hard, but he failed the exam.
35. When does your school vacation start ?
A. She asked when my school vacation started. B. She asked me when my school vacation started.
C. She asked me when will my school vacation start. D. She asked me when would my school vacation start.
IV. Đọc và trả lời các câu hỏi sau:
Great Britain is in the north west of Europe. It is the largest island in Europe. Its closest neighbours are France, Belgium and Northerland. it consists of three parts: England, Wales and Scotland. England is in the south of Great Britain. it is the largest and strongest part of Great Britain. The United Kingdom (the UK) also includes Great Britain and Northem Ireland. Its capital, London, has a population of over seven million people.
36. Great Britain is …..
A. in the north west of Europe B. on the north west of Europe
C. near the north west of Europe D. in the south west of Europe.
37. France, Belgium and Northerland are …
A. near Great Britain B. closer Great Britain
C. the closest ones of Great Britain. D. not far from Great Britain
38. England is ……..
A. in the south west of Great Britain. B. the strongest and largest part of Great Britain.
C. in the south of Great Britain D. both B and C.
39. The United Kingdom has ….
A. two parts which are Scotland and England
B. three parts which are Scotland and England and Wales.
C. one part which is Great Britain
D. tow parts which are Great Britain and Northem Ireland.
40. The population of ……
A. London is over seven million people. B. Wales is over seven million people.
C. England is over seven million people. D. the UK is over seven million people.
V. Chọn từ đã cho điền vào chỗ trống
The best way (41……) the four skills: listening, speaking, reading and writing, is to practise regularly. You should make use of every opportunity to speak English (42……) friends in class or at English speaking club or even with yourselves in front of the mirror. Learning by heart all the words does not help much if you do not read a lot because you easily forget (43……) you have leamt. Reading books, listening to the radio and watching films are better ways to memorize words. Besides, English learner should not be shy because making mistakes is (44……) in learning foreign languages. Practising (45……..) a lot is a good way to correct your mistakes.
41. A. to improve B. to be improved C. to know D. to understand
42. A. with B. to C. by D. Both B, C are correct
43. A. what B. things C. everything D. all
44. A. unavoidable B. unavoid C. avoidable D. certainly
45. A. spoken B. speaking C. to speak D. learning
VI. Tìm lỗi ở phần gạch chân của mỗi câu sau:
46. English is speaking all over the world
A B C D
47. What is the second longest river in our country ? Hong or Me kong ?
A B C D
48. We are real interested in learning Maths.
A B C D
49. He asked me that if I liked learning Music
A B C D
50. London, capital of England, is situated on the Thames river
A B C D
HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM
Each right sentence gets 0.2ark: 50 x 0.2 = 10 marks
Total: 10 marks
PART A. LISTENING
Task 1. Listen to the conversation between Paul and Khoa. Circle the best
answer A, B or C. You will listen TWICE.
1. B 2C 3A 4C
Task 2. Mrs. Geller is talking with the students about their teachers. Listen and fill in each gap with NO MORE THAN A WORD. You will listen TWICE.
Glasses 2.music 3. Round 4.green
PART B: PHONETICS
Exercise 1: Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounce differently from the other three in each sentence below .
9.C
10. C.
11. A. 12.D
13C
PART C: GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY
Exercise 1: Choose the word of phrase that best completes each sentence below.
14.A
15.A
16.B
17.C
18. C
19.A
20.D
21A
22.D
23. D
24.B
25.C
26. A
Choose the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following sentences.
27.B
28.A
Choose the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following sentences.
29.A
30.A
Exercise 2:Give the correct form of the verb in brackets .
31.finishes
32.are watching
33.doesn’t usually go
34. go
Exercise 3: Choose the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correcting in each of the following sentences .
35. B- has
36.C- playing
PART D. READING.
Exercise 1. Read the passage then answer the questions.
37 .His house is near the sea
38.There are five( rooms in his house)
39 .Yes, there is
40 .He plays badminton with his father in his family
Exercise 2: Choose the correct word A, B, C or D for each gap to complete the following passage:
41.B
42.C
43.
44
45
PART E. WRITING
Exercise 1: Complete each sentence so that it means the same as the sentence above
46. Ha is more hard-working than Quang
47. You must do your homework before going to school.
48.Why don’t we go to the zoo?
49. Viet Nam has a lot of beautiful beaches
50. My house is behind the garden
Ngoài Đề Thi Giữa Kì 1 Anh 9 Năm Học 2022-2023 Siêu Hay (Đề 4) Có Đáp Án – Tiếng Anh Lớp 9 thì các tài liệu học tập trong chương trình 9 sẽ được cập nhật liên tục và nhanh nhất có thể sau khi kỳ thi diễn ra trên Danh mục Tài Liệu Học Tập nhằm giúp các bạn đọc thuận tiện trong việc nghiên cứu tài liệu. Quý thày cô và các bạn đọc có thể chia sẻ thêm những tài liệu học tập hữu ích đến địa chỉ email của chúng tôi, nhằm xây dựng nên kho đề thi phong phú, đa dạng cho các em học sinh tham khảo và rèn luyện.
Đề thi giữa kỳ 1 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 9 là một tài liệu quan trọng để học sinh ôn tập và kiểm tra nắm vững kiến thức trong giai đoạn học đầu năm. Đặc biệt, đề thi siêu hay (đề 4) năm học 2022-2023 sẽ giúp học sinh rèn kỹ năng làm bài và đánh giá mức độ nắm vững kiến thức theo đúng định hướng của chương trình học.
Đề thi giữa kỳ 1 Tiếng Anh lớp 9 (đề 4) năm học 2022-2023 bao gồm các phần thường có trong đề thi Tiếng Anh, bao gồm nghe, đọc, viết và nói. Nội dung đề thi được thiết kế sao cho phù hợp với năng lực và trình độ của học sinh lớp 9, từ những bài tập cơ bản đến những bài tập phức tạp hơn.
Đặc biệt, đề thi này cung cấp đáp án chi tiết kèm theo. Đáp án giúp học sinh tự kiểm tra và đối chiếu kết quả của mình, từ đó nắm bắt được những lỗi sai và cải thiện kỹ năng làm bài. Ngoài ra, đáp án còn cung cấp lời giải chi tiết, giúp học sinh hiểu rõ từng bước giải quyết và áp dụng kiến thức vào các bài tập.
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