Docly

Bộ Đề Thi THPT Quốc Gia Môn Tiếng Anh (Đề 1) Kèm Đáp Án Chi Tiết

Bộ Đề Thi THPT Quốc Gia Môn Tiếng Anh (Đề 1) Kèm Đáp Án Chi Tiết – Đề Thi Thử Tiếng Anh 2023 được Trang Tài Liệu sưu tầm với các thông tin mới nhất hiện nay. Đề thi này sẽ giúp các em học sinh ôn tập, củng cố kiến thức, rèn luyện kĩ năng làm bài. Cũng như hỗ trợ thầy cô trong quá trình giảng dạy. Hy vọng những tài liệu này sẽ giúp các em trong quá trình ôn luyện và đạt kết quả cao trong bài thi sắp tới.

>>> Mọi người cũng quan tâm:

Đề Thi Thử THPT Quốc Gia Môn Địa Lí 2020 Trường Hàn Thuyên Lần 1
Đề thi thử Thpt quốc gia 2022 môn Anh lần 2 của Sở GD&ĐT Vĩnh Phúc
Đề thi thử thpt quốc gia 2023 môn Lý Chuyên Lam Sơn Lần 1 kèm lời giải chi tiết
Đề thi thử Thpt Quốc gia 2022 môn Anh Chuyên Thái Bình Lần 3
Đề thi thử Thpt Quốc gia 2022 môn Anh THPT Nguyễn Trung Thiên Lần 1

Bộ Đề Thi THPT Quốc Gia Môn Tiếng Anh (Đề 1) Kèm Đáp Án Chi Tiết

Dưới đây là bản đọc trực tuyến giúp thầy cô và các em học sinh có thể nghiên cứu Online hoặc bạn có thể tải miễn phí với phiên bản word để dễ dàng in ấn cũng như học tập Offline

ĐỀ THI THỬ TỐT NGHIỆP THPT-ĐỀ 1

NĂM HỌC 2022 - 2023

Môn TIẾNG ANH

Thời gian làm bài : 60 phút



Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 1: He said “My wife bought a computer last year.”

A. He said that his wife had bought a computer last year.

B. He said that his wife had bought a computer the previous year.

C. He said that my wife had bought a computer the previous year.

D. He said that his wife has bought a computer last year.

Question 2: The children last visited the zoo two years ago.

A. It’s since two years ago when the children visited the zoo.

B. The children haven’t visited the zoo for two years.

C. The children didn’t visit the zoo in two years.

D. The children haven’t visited the zoo two years earlier.

Question 3: Perhaps, the next Sunday’s meeting will be cancelled.

A. The next Sunday’s meeting must be cancelled.

B. The next Sunday’s meeting needs to be cancelled.

C. The next Sunday’s meeting may be cancelled.

D. The next Sunday’s meeting should be cancelled.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of stress in each of the following questions.

Question 4: A. kitchen B. lifestyle C. culture D. become

Question 5: A. destruction B. chemical C. habitat D. wonderful

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 6: He works on the night shift. He can’t go to my party.

A. If he didn’t work on the night shift, he could go to my party.

B. If he worked on the night shift, he could go to my party.

C. If he works on the night shift, he can go to my party.

D. As long as he hadn’t worked on the night shift, he could go to my party.

Question 7: We didn’t realize that we had not set the burglar alarm in the office until we came back home. A. Having realized we had not set the burglar alarm in the office, we came back home.

B. Had we realized we had not set the burglar alarm in the office, we wouldn’t come back home.

C. Only after we realized that we had not set the burglar alarm in the office did we come back home.

D. Not until we had come back home did we realize we had not set the burglar alarm in the office.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 8: Please give me some recommendation to buy suitable books for my ten-year-old girl.

A. defense B. advice C. interest D. question

Question 9: It was really difficult to decide whether to take part in the race or not.

A. believe B. think C. determine D. examine

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 10 to 34.

A stinky gym bug in your kitchen? Who will be more upset by the smell - the men or the women in your family? (10) ______ scientists suggest that women not only smell, but feel, taste, and hear more accurately than men.

Take colors, for example. One study suggests that men are not as good as women at distinguishing between (11) ______ of color, although they focus well on rapidly changing images. As for touch, small fingers have a finer sense of touch, whether male or female.

Hearing is possibly one of the most debated areas, when talking about the senses. Evidence shows that boys hear as well as girls at birth, but with age, a man’s hearing may soon deteriorate. (12) ______, environmental factors could play a role in this. Women may also be better at identifying different flavors (13) ______ need both taste and smell to experience, as studies have shown that they have more taste buds on their tongue.

Going back to the smelly gym bag - yes, it’s likely that Mom will be in deep (14) ______. But is that because women’s brains have more ‘smell cells’ or because you were too lazy to move it?

Question 10: A. Some

B. Each

C. Another

D. Every

Question 11: A. smells

B. shades

C. shadows

D. senses

Question 12: A. Moreover

B. Therefore

C. Due to

D. However

Question 13: A. which

B. who

C. where

D. whom

Question 14: A. surprise

B. interest

C. shock

D. awareness

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 15: Though I persuaded my boss to solve a very serious problem in the new management system, he just made light of it.

A. discovered by chance B. disagreed with

C. completely ignored D. treated as important

Question 16: He is writing a letter of acceptance to the employer with the hope to get his favorite position in the company.

A. confirmation B. agreement C. refusal D. admission

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 17: Hanh and David have just had a delicious meal in a restaurant.

Hanh: “It’s very generous of you to offer to pay. Thank you so much!”

David: “________________________”

A. I’m glad you like it. B. That was the least I could do.

C. Thanks a million. D. You can say that again.

Question 18: David is talking to Helen about the dress she has just bought.

David: “Your new dress is really nice!”.

Helen: “________________________”

A. You’re welcome. B. Don’t mention it.

C. You, too. D. It’s nice of you to say so.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 19 to 23.

Marriage is an ancient religious and legal practice celebrated around the world. However, wedding customs vary from country to country.

The Wedding Rings: In most cultures, during the marriage ceremony, couples exchange their wedding rings with their life partner - usually made of gold or silver. The wedding rings are normally worn on the third finger of the left or right hand as a sign of being married. The circular shape of the ring is symbolic of the couple’s eternal relationship. In Brazil and some other communities, it is a tradition to have the rings engraved with the bride’s name on the groom’s ring, and vice versa.

The Wedding Flowers: Obviously, flowers play an important role in most weddings. In many areas, roses, especially the red roses are said to be the flowers of love, and because they usually bloom in June, this has become the most popular month for weddings in many countries. After the wedding ceremony, in many countries the bride throws her bouquet into a crowd of well-wishers – usually her single female friends. The lucky person who catches this bouquet is expected to be the next one to get married.

Question 19: Which of the following is the best title of the passage?

A. Wedding customs B. Wedding ceremonies

C. Wedding flowers D. Wedding history

Question 20: The phrase “eternal” in the passage is closest in meaning to ______.

A. lovely B. temporary C. never-ending D. healthy

Question 21: According to the passage, what is NOT mentioned about the wedding rings?

A. They are worn on the third finger. B. They are made in many shapes

C. They are made of gold D. They are made of silver.

Question 22: The word “this” in the passage refers to which of the following?

A. rose B. June C. role D. love

Question 23: The lucky person to catch the wedding bouquet from the bride is expected to ______.

A. grow flowers B. throw her bouquet

C. love flowers D. get married

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 24: A. expects

B. prepares

C. appears

D. informs

Question 25: A. whale

B. face

C. map

D. cake

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 26 to 32.

Do you feel like your teenager is spending most of the day glued to a phone screen? You're not too far off. A new survey from the Pew Research Center reveals the surprising ways that technology intersects with teen friendships – and the results show that 57 percent of teens have made at least one new friend online. Even more surprisingly, only 20 percent of those digital friends ever meet in person.

While teens do connect with their friends face-to-face outside of school, they spend 55 percent of their day texting with friends, and only 25 percent of teens are spending actual time with their friends on a daily basis (outside of school hallways). These new forms of communication are key in maintaining friendships dayto-day – 27 percent of teens instant message their friends every day, 23 percent connect through social media every day, and 7 percent even video chat daily. Text messaging remains the main form of communication – almost half of survey respondents say it's their chosen method of communication with their closest friend.

While girls are more likely to text with their close friends, boys are meeting new friends (and maintaining friendships) in the gaming world – 89 percent play with friends they know, and 54 percent play with online-only friends. Whether they're close with their teammates or not, online gamers say that playing makes them feel "more connected" to friends they know, or garners they've never met.

When making new friends, social media has also become a major part of the teenage identity – 62 percent of teens are quick to share their social media usernames when connecting with a new friend (although 80 percent still consider their phone number the best method of contact). Despite the negative consequences - 21 percent of teenage users feel worse about their lives because of posts they see on social media – teens also have found support and connection through various platforms. In fact, 68 percent of teens received support during a challenging time in their lives via social media platforms.

Just as technology has become a gateway for new friendships, or a channel to stay connected with current friends, it can also make a friendship breakup more public. The study reveals that girls are more likely to block or unfriend former allies, and 68 percent of all teenage users report experiencing "drama among their friends on social media."

Question 26: What is the main idea of the passage?

A. Teenagers are making and keeping friends in a surprising way.

B. The difference of making new friends between girls and boys.

C. Social media connects friendship.

D. Social media affects friendship too much.

Question 27: According to the passage, what percentage of teens spend actual time with their friends?

A. 23% B. 27% C. 25% D. 55%

Question 28: The word " intersects " in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to _____.

A. involve B. maintain C. generate D. interrupt

Question 29: The word "they" in paragraph 3 refers to _____.

A. friends B. online gamers C. online-only friends D. their teammates

Question 30: The following sentences are true, EXCEPT _____.

A. New forms of communication play an important role in keeping friendships

B. According to the survey, more than half of teens have ever made new friends online

C. Most teenagers use video chat to maintain relationship with friends D. Teens only meet face-to-face one fifth of online friends they have made Question 31: What can be inferred from the passage?

A. The majority of teenage users agree that social media has negative consequences in their lives.

B. Boys are more likely to meet new friends than girls.

C. Thanks to social media, more than two thirds of teens are supported when they face with challenges in their lives.

D. Most teens are not easy to give others their usernames when making new friends.

Question 32: What is the synonym of the word "breakup” in the last paragraph?

A. commencing B. popularity C. termination D. divorce

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 33: In some European nations, kids need to study _______ foreign language in primary school.

A. an B. a C. the D. X

Question 34: Her father bought her a new bike ______ her birthday.

A. at B. in C. with D. on

Question 35: John crashed his truck ______ he was driving too fast.

A. because B. although C. despite D. because of

Question 36: These tasks are very ______ from those ones.

A. differ B. differently C. different D. difference

Question 37: Students can borrow $9,000 from government a year to pay their tuition ______.

A. fee B. fare C. wage D. fine

Question 38: Paul noticed a job advertisement while he ______ along the street.

A. would walk B. was walking C. walked D. had walked

Question 39: Peter is an ambitious man who will never ______ till he gets what he wants.

A. put on B. take off C. turn down D. give up

Question 40: I will give her your note ______.

A. when I had seen her B. when I saw her

C. when I see her D. when I was seeing her

Question 41: This bridge ______ many years ago.

A. builds B. was built C. was building D. has built

Question 42: Terry managed ________ his science exam after studying really hard.

A. passing B. pass C. passes D. to pass

Question 43: ______ together on the project for years, the team members become close with each other.

A. Being worked B. To work C. Having worked D. Worked

Question 44: Students should ______ advantage of available materials in learning.

A. have B. take C. make D. do

Question 45: Peter is very talented, ______?

A. isn’t he B. was it C. does it D. wasn’t it

Question 46: It was noticeable how a few people managed to ________ their will on the others.

A. focus B. break C. judge D. impose

Question 47: He tries his best to bring ______ the bacon for his all five children.

A. house B. home C. room D. department

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 48: My students are very hard-working and they always finish her homework before going to school.

A. My B. hard-working C. before D. her

Question 49: There were inconsiderate amounts of money wasted on large building projects.

A. amounts B. inconsiderate C. wasted D. building

Question 50: Last year, Tim works as a shipper and he earned twice as much as his brother.

A. twice B. a shipper C. works D. as

_______ Hết _______

ĐÁP ÁN

1

B

6

A

11

B

16

C

21

B

26

A

31

C

36

C

41

B

46

D

2

B

7

D

12

D

17

B

22

B

27

C

32

D

37

A

42

D

47

B

3

C

8

B

13

A

18

D

23

D

28

D

33

B

38

B

43

C

48

D

4

D

9

C

14

C

19

A

24

A

29

B

34

D

39

D

44

B

49

B

5

A

10

A

15

D

20

C

25

C

30

C

35

A

40

C

45

A

50

C




Ngoài Bộ Đề Thi THPT Quốc Gia Môn Tiếng Anh (Đề 1) Kèm Đáp Án Chi Tiết – Đề Thi Thử Tiếng Anh 2023 thì các đề thi trong chương trình lớp 12 sẽ được cập nhật liên tục và nhanh nhất có thể sau khi kỳ thi diễn ra trên Danh mục Kho Đề Thi nhằm giúp các bạn đọc thuận tiện trong việc tra cứu và đối chiếu đáp án. Quý thầy cô và các bạn đọc có thể chia sẻ thêm những tài liệu học tập hữu ích đến địa chỉ email của chúng tôi, nhằm xây dựng nên kho đề thi phong phú, đa dạng cho các em học sinh tham khảo và rèn luyện.

Bộ Đề Thi THPT Quốc Gia Môn Tiếng Anh (Đề 1) được biên soạn theo định dạng của kỳ thi THPT Quốc gia và dựa trên chương trình học của Bộ Giáo dục và Đào tạo (GD&ĐT). Bộ đề này bao gồm các phần nghe, đọc, viết và nói, giúp học sinh ôn tập và nâng cao khả năng sử dụng Tiếng Anh trong các tình huống thực tế.

Mỗi bài trong Bộ Đề Thi THPT Quốc Gia Môn Tiếng Anh (Đề 1) được thiết kế theo cấu trúc đề thi thực tế, với độ khó tương đương với kỳ thi THPT Quốc gia. Bộ đề bao gồm các dạng câu hỏi phổ biến như điền từ, chọn đáp án đúng, hoàn thành câu, đọc hiểu và viết đoạn văn ngắn. Điều này giúp học sinh làm quen với các dạng bài thi và nâng cao khả năng làm bài trong thời gian giới hạn.

Đặc biệt, Bộ Đề Thi THPT Quốc Gia Môn Tiếng Anh (Đề 1) đi kèm với đáp án chi tiết và lời giải thích. Đáp án cung cấp cho học sinh câu trả lời chính xác cho từng câu hỏi, giúp họ tự kiểm tra và đánh giá kết quả của mình. Lời giải thích chi tiết giúp học sinh hiểu rõ hơn về cách giải quyết các bài tập và áp dụng kiến thức vào thực tế.

>>> Bài viết liên quan:

50 Đề Thi HSG Sinh học 12 kèm lời giải chi tiết
Đề thi thử thpt quốc gia môn địa lý của Sở Giáo Dục Hưng Yên Lần 1
Đề thi thử Thpt Quốc gia 2023 môn Lý THPT Hàn Thuyên Lần 1 có đáp án
Tóm tắt các kiến thức sinh 12 thi tốt nghiệp THPT Quốc gia năm nay
Bộ đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia môn Địa Lý 2019 Lần 2 có lời giải
Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia 2023 môn Anh Chuyên Lam Sơn Lần 1
Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia 2023 môn Anh đề 5 bám sát minh họa
Chuyên đề di truyền học người | Sinh học lớp 12
Đề thi học kì 1 lớp 12 Môn Địa Lí Tỉnh Quảng Nam 2018-2019
10 đề thi thử Quốc gia môn Anh 2020 Tập 1 có đáp án và lời giải