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Đề Thi HSG Anh 8 Huyện Thanh Oai 2016-2017 có đáp án và file nghe

Đề Thi HSG Anh 8 Huyện Thanh Oai 2016-2017 Có Đáp Án Và File Nghe – Tiếng Anh Lớp 8 được Trang Tài Liệu sưu tầm với các thông tin mới nhất hiện nay. Đề thi này sẽ giúp các em học sinh ôn tập, củng cố kiến thức, rèn luyện kĩ năng làm bài. Cũng như hỗ trợ thầy cô trong quá trình giảng dạy. Hy vọng những tài liệu này sẽ giúp các em trong quá trình ôn luyện và đạt kết quả cao trong bài thi sắp tới.

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Trong bài viết này, chúng ta sẽ cùng tìm hiểu về Đề Thi HSG môn Tiếng Anh lớp 8 Huyện Thanh Oai năm học 2016-2017. Đề thi này là một nguồn tài liệu hữu ích để các bạn ôn tập và nâng cao kiến thức của mình trong môn Tiếng Anh.

Đề thi này không chỉ cung cấp các câu hỏi và bài tập, mà còn đi kèm với đáp án chi tiết và file nghe, giúp các bạn rèn kỹ năng nghe hiểu và làm bài thi một cách tự tin.

Bài viết sẽ trình bày các câu hỏi trong đề thi, giải đáp từng câu hỏi một và cung cấp các gợi ý, mẹo để giúp các bạn đạt kết quả tốt trong kỳ thi.

Đừng bỏ lỡ cơ hội ôn tập và nâng cao kỹ năng Tiếng Anh của mình với Đề Thi HSG môn Tiếng Anh lớp 8 Huyện Thanh Oai 2016-2017. Hãy cùng nhau bắt đầu chuẩn bị cho một kỳ thi thành công!

Dưới đây là bản đọc trực tuyến giúp thầy cô và các em học sinh có thể nghiên cứu Online hoặc bạn có thể tải miễn phí với phiên bản word để dễ dàng in ấn cũng như học tập Offline

PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO HUYỆN THANH OAI

aif ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 8

NĂM HỌC: 2016 - 2017

ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC

MÔN: TIẾNG ANH

Thời gian: 120 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)



Chú ý: - Bộ đề thi này gồm có 09 trang, từ trang 01 đến trang 06.

- Thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp vào bộ đề thi này.



Điểm

Họ tên, chữ ký của người chấm thi số 1:

Số phách

- Bằng số:……………..

………………………………………...

(Do Chủ tịch hội đồng chấm thi ghi)

- Bằng chữ:……………

Họ tên, chữ ký của người chấm thi số 2:

…………………..

………………………...

………………………………………...


PART ONE: LISTENING (3.0 pts)

Listen and fill in the gaps: (15 0.2 = 3.0 pts)

Digital cameras have changed the way that we look at (1)………………... Now there’s a device that changes the way we (2)……………….. them. This is the LytroIllum, a digital camera that lets you refocus your (3)……………….. after you’ve taken them.

The camera uses something called light-field (4)……………….., which helps it catch millions of light rays with each image. Once you snap your photo, you (5)……………….. the camera’s software to choose what you want to focus on. You can also use it to shift perspective, create 3D images, and even animate still photos; (6)……………….. what Lytro calls ‘living pictures.’

The Illum is (7)……………….. to look like a DSLR camera. It comes equipped with a fast and (8)……………….. zoom lens and LCD touch-screen monitor… but all of this doesn’t come cheap. The Illum goes for 1600 dollars.

So, is this the (9)……………….. of photography? That’s still up for debate. Lytro released an earlier and much cheaper model in 2011 but the camera never (10)……………….. off. After all, the LytroIllum’s 2d processed image is only about five megapixels, a far cry from (11)……………….. some of today’s smart phones can shoot. And a number of smart (12)……………….. apps claim to imitate what light-field photography with varying success, for only a few (13)………………...

Still, other smart phone manufacturers are working on similar technology – but as they say, imitation is the sincerest form of flattery. And (14)……………….. year, Apple, patented its own light-field camera. So, (15)……………….. Lytro really is on to something.

­­­

-> Your answers:

1..................................

2..................................

3..................................

4..................................

5..................................

6..................................

7..................................

8..................................

9..................................

10..................................

11..................................

12..................................

13..................................

14..................................

15..................................

PART TWO: PHONETICS: (2.0 pts)

I. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently: (5 0.2=1.0 pt)

16. A. minority B. robbery C. gramophone D. monument

17. A. ploughed B. prayed C. ordered D. published

18. A. character B. headache C. stretcher D. chemistry

19. A. guitarist         B. passenger    C. generous                 D. village

20. A. physics B. disease C. useful D. rehearse

-> Your answers:

16..................................

17..................................

18..................................

19..................................

20..................................


II. Choose the word whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others:

(5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

21. A. humorous

B. generous

C. mysterious

D. precious

22. A. favorite

B. identify

C. influence

D. government

23. A. orchestra

B. collector

C. teenager

D. moderate

24. A. biology

B. effective

C. experience

D. chemical

25. A. veteran

B. lifeguard

C. campaign

D. harvest

-> Your answers:

21..................................

22..................................

23..................................

24..................................

25..................................


PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURES: (5.0 pts)

I. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences: (10 0.2 = 2.0 pts)

26. My family has decided to use .....................electricity by using more solar energy instead.

A. more      

B. less  

C. much  

D. fewer

27. Like Bob, his wife prefers clothes made .....................silk .....................those of cotton.

A. of/ to

B. in/ to

C. from/ more

D. from/ than

28. When my mother came to see my little sister last night, she ......................

A. have cried

B. was crying

C. were crying

D. is crying

29. The harder your brother works, the .....................money he earns.

A. better

B. much

C. more

D. less

30. After a month, my new classmate got used to .....................in my new school.

A. study

B. is studying

C. studying

D. studied

31. At first I found .....................to get used to .....................on the other side of the road.

A. it difficult - drive

B. it difficult - driving

C. difficult- driving

D. difficulty-drive

32. Yesterday evening, we were having dinner .....................

A. when the phone was ringing

B. then the

phone rang

C. when the

phone rang

D. then the phone was ringing

33. You shouldn’t talk about her character only through her .....................

A. appearance

B. appear

C. appeared

D. appearing

34. Two teams try to make a fire .....................rubbing pieces .....................bamboo together.

A. by / of

B. of / by

C. with / by

D. by / with

35. The film was .....................There was so much blood in it.

A. being

B. horrify

C. horrifying

D. horrified


-> Your answers:

26..................................

27..................................

28..................................

29..................................

30..................................

31..................................

32..................................

33..................................

34..................................

35..................................



II. Give the correct form of the words given to complete the sentences: (10 0.2 = 2.0 pts)

36. Vinamilk company has served customers a lot of ………………….recently. (PRODUCE)

37. Linda and he family love all Vietnamese dishes, …………………. Nem. (SPECIAL)

38. There are a lot of …………………. in the competition. (CONTEST)

39. My keys were locked inside the car…………….…., the aside window was open. (LUCK)

40. All the………………….between Paris and Ha Noi have been cancelled due to fog. (FLY)

41. Hoa’s aunt has cut herself and it’s …………………. quite badly. (BLOOD)

42. Bell …………………. demonstrated his invention. (SUCCESS)

43. There is no easy ………………….to this problem. (SOLVE)

44. I wrote ………………….letters of application but I got no reply. (END)

45. …………………. dark clouds appeared and it began to rain. (FORTUNATE)



-> Your answers:

36 ..................................

37 ..................................

38 ..................................

39 ..................................

40 ..................................

41 ..................................

42 ..................................

43 ..................................

44 ..................................

45 ..................................



III. Supply the correct forms of the verbs in brackets: (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

46. I’d rather you (not use) …………………….the office phone too often.

47. Let all of dirty clothes (collect) ……………………. by 8 o’clock tommorow morning.

48. Mrs. Van Anh and some of her friends felt that they (follow) ……………………. on

the way to her office this morning.

49. Going fishing with friends at weekends is very (interest) …………………….

50. Hoang was delighted (receive) ……………………. his mother’s letter this afternoon.


-> Your answers:

46.

47.

48.

49.

50.

PART FOUR: READING COMPREHENSION: (5.0 pts)

I. Choose the word or phrase that best fits each gap of the passage: (10 0.2 = 2.0 pts)

For many people, traveling by plane is an exciting experience. Others, however, find the whole idea quite terrifying, (51)………….……….. flying is no more dangerous (52)………….……….. any other form of travel and some expects say it is considerably safer. It is known, however, that most accident occurs (53)………….……….. taking off and landing when a (54)………….……….. decisions are vitally important. The people (55)………….……….. job is to look (56)………….……….. the passengers, the stewards and stewardnesses play an important part in helping passengers to (57)………….……….. safe and comfortable. Indeed for many passengers being (58)………….……….. such care of is all part of the total experience. (59)………….……….. other form of travel involves waiting for people in quite the same (60)………….……….., with food, drink, newspapers, magazines, music, and even video films.


51. A. although

B. too

C. and

D. because

52. A. than

B. as

C. then

D. with

53. A. while

B. during

C. for

D. through

54. A. leader’s

B. chief’s

C. driver’s

D. pilot’s

55. A. whose

B. which

C. their

D. that

56. A. for

B. up

C. after

D. round

57. A. feel

B. rest

C. experience

D. lie

58. A. given

B. kept

C. shown

D. taken

59. A. Any

B. No

C. All

D. Not

60. A. way

B. kind

C. sort

D. part


-> Your answers:

51.

52.

53.

54.

55.

56.

57.

58.

59.

60.


II. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space: (10 0.2 =2.0 pts)


Christmas is always held (61)………….……….. December the twenty fifth every year. Every family in England decorates a Christmas tree and puts (62)………….……….. in the middle of the living room. And Santa Claus plays an important (63)………….……….. in the festival. There is a poem to relate him. In 1823, the patron saint of children, Saint Nicholas appeared in a poem (64)………….……….. A Visit Saint Nicholas. The character in the poem (65)………….……….. a fat jolly man who wore a (66)………….……….. suit and gave children (67)………….……….. on Christmas Eve. The poem, which was (68)………….……….. by Clement Clarke Moore, an American professor, became popular (69)………….……….. the USA. Santa Claus is based (70)………….……….. the description of Saint Nicholas in this poem.



-> Your answers:

61.

62.

63.

64.

65.

66.

67.

68.

69.

70.

III. Read the text then answer the questions below: (5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

Every year people in many countries learn English. Some of them are young children. Others are teenagers. Many are adults. Some learn at school. Others study by themselves. A few learn English just by hearing the language in films, on television, in the office or among their friends. Most people must work hard to learn English.

Why do all these people learn English? It’s not difficult to answer this question. Many boys and girls learn English at school because “it” is one of their subjects. Many adults learn English because it is useful for their work. Teenagers often learn English for their higher studies because some of their books are written in English at the college or university. Other people learn English because they want to read newspapers or magazines in English.

71. Accoding to/ writer/ who/ learn/ English?

-> …………………………………………………………………………….……..……

72. In line two/ second paragraph/ what/ word/ “it” refer to?

-> …………………………………………………………………………….……..……

73. Where/ many boys/ girls/ learn English?

-> …………………………………………………………………………….……..……

74. Why/ adults/ learn English?

-> …………………………………………………………………………….……..……

75. What/ teenagers/ often learn/ English for?

-> …………………………………………………………………………….……..……


PART FIVE: WRITING: (5.0 pts)

I. Rewrite the sentences without changing the meaning. Use the given words:

(5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

76. Quang Huy was very sad that he wasn’t accepted in our soccer team.

-> Quang Huy is very sad not ……………………………………………………………

77. When the prisoner was asked about his childhood, he hates it.

-> The prisoner hates ………..……………………………………………..…………….

78. “How many cars are there in front of your house, Thuy Dung?”, Tung said

-> Tung asked …………………..........................................................................................

79. John and Mary haven’t seen each other for over five months.

-> The last time ……………………………………………………………………….…

80. My new classmate, Ngoc Anh, found it easy to translate that text into English.

-> My new classmate, Ngoc Anh, had no ……………………………………………….

II. Write complete sentences using the suggested words: (5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)


81. Your father/ look/ thinner now. he/ lose/ weight?

-> ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….……………………..

82. When/ I/ see/ our form teacher/ early this morning/ he/ drive/ car.

-> ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….……………………..

83. This/ be/ first time/ these foreigners/ see/ rice paddies.

-> ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….……………………..

84. Would/ mind/ if/ I/ borrow/ your pen? – Sorry./ use/ it.

-> ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….……………………..

85. There/ no point/ persuading/ Nam/ join/ my chess club.

-> ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….……………………..

III. Write (over 150 words) about the festival(s) that you have joined recently: (3.0 pts)

(The essay must have a title and three parts: Opening – Body and Conclusion.

Don’t show your proper names/ school/ village…, and has about 150 words or more)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….……………………..

ĐÁP ÁN

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 8

NĂM HỌC: 2016 - 2017

MÔN: TIẾNG ANH

PART ONE: LISTENING (3.0 pts)

Listen and fill in the gaps: (15 0.2 = 3.0 pts)

1. pictures

2. focus

3. photographs

4. technology

5. use

6. creating

7. designed

8. powerful

9. future

10. took

11. what

12. phone

13. dollars

14. last

15. maybe



PART TWO: PHONETICS: (2.0 pts)

I. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently: (5 0.2=1.0 pt)

16. C. gramophone

17. D. published

18. C. stretcher

19. A. guitarist

20. B. disease


II. Choose the word whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others:

21. C. mysterious

22. B. identify

23. B. collector

24. D. chemical

25. C. campaign


PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURES: (5.0 pts)

I. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences: (10 0.2 = 2.0 pts)

26. B. less

27. A. of/ to

28. B. was crying

29. C. more

30. C. studying

31. B. it difficult - driving

32. C. when the phone rang

33. A. appearance

34. A. by / of

35. C. horrifying



II. Give the correct form of the words given to complete the sentences: (10 0.2 =2.0 pts)

36. products

37. especially

38. contestants

39. luckily

40. flights

41. bleeding

42. successfully

43. solution

44. endless

45. unfortunately



III. Supply the correct forms of the verbs in brackets: (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

46. did not use

47. be collected

48. were being followed

49. interesting

50. to receive



PART FOUR: READING COMPREHENSION: (5.0 pts)

I. Choose the word or phrase that best fits each gap of the passage: (10 0.2 = 2.0 pts)

51. A. although

52. A. than

53. B. during

54. D. pilot’s

55. A. whose

56. C. after

57. A. feel

58. D. taken

59. B. No

60. A. way


II. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space: (10 0.2 =2.0 pts)

61. on

62. it

63. part/ role

64. called

65. was

66. red

67. presents

68. written

69. with

70. on



III. Read the text then answer the questions below: (5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

71. Accoding to the writer, who learn English?

-> English is learnt by young children, teenagers and adults./

(Or) Young children, teenagers, adults learn English.

72. In line two of the second paragraph, what does the word “it” refer to?

-> In line two of the second paragraph, the word “it” refers to “English”.

73. Where do many boys and girls learn English?

-> Many boys and girls learn English/ They learn English at school.

74. Why do adults learn English?

-> Because they need it for their job/ It is useful for their work.

75. What do teenagers often learn English for?

-> Teenagers often learn English for their higher studies.


PART FIVE: WRITING: (5.0 pts)

I. Rewrite the sentences without changing the meaning. Use the given words:

(5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

76. Quang Huy was very sad not to be accepted in our soccer team.

77. The prisoner hates being asked about his childhood.

78. Tung asked Thuy Dung how many cars there were in front of her/his house.

79. The last time John and Mary saw each other was over five months ago.

80. My new classmate, Ngoc Anh, had no difficulty in translating that text into English.


II. Write complete sentences using the suggested words: (5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

81. Your father looks thinner now. Has he losen weight?

82. When I saw our form teacher early this morning, he was driving a car.

83. This is the first time these foreigners have seen (the) rice paddies.

84. Would you mind if I borrowed your pen? - Sorry. I am using it.

85. There is no point in persuading Nam to join in my chess club.


III. Write (over 150 words) about the festival(s) that you have joined recently: (3.0 pts)

(The essay must have three parts: Opening – Body and Conclusion.

Don’t show any of the student’s proper names/ school/ village…)

- The opening: The essay must write something relating to the topic “The name of the festival…”. (0.5pt)

- The body: Write about: Where is was held; how long it lasted; the activities/ competitions; how was it organized; the people taking part in; the sentences must have connectors and link words... (2,0)

- The conclusion: Write about the writers' ideas or what they thought about the festival (s).

(0.5 pt)

* Note: The essay that has 3.0 points must have:

- Long enough (At least 150 words or maybe more).

- Correct vocabulary and structures.

- Don't tell the proper names (The school, the student's/ teacher’s name/ ...).



Ngoài Đề Thi HSG Anh 8 Huyện Thanh Oai 2016-2017 Có Đáp Án Và File Nghe – Tiếng Anh Lớp 8 thì các đề thi trong chương trình lớp 8 sẽ được cập nhật liên tục và nhanh nhất có thể sau khi kỳ thi diễn ra trên Danh mục Kho Đề Thi nhằm giúp các bạn đọc thuận tiện trong việc tra cứu và đối chiếu đáp án. Quý thầy cô và các bạn đọc có thể chia sẻ thêm những tài liệu học tập hữu ích đến địa chỉ email của chúng tôi, nhằm xây dựng nên kho đề thi phong phú, đa dạng cho các em học sinh tham khảo và rèn luyện.