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Đề Thi Học Sinh Giỏi Tiếng Anh Lớp 9 Sở GD Quảng Nam Có File Nghe Và Đáp Án

Đề Thi Học Sinh Giỏi Tiếng Anh Lớp 9 Sở GD Quảng Nam 2018-2019 Có File Nghe Và Đáp Án được Trang Tài Liệu sưu tầm với các thông tin mới nhất hiện nay. Đề thi này sẽ giúp các em học sinh ôn tập, củng cố kiến thức, rèn luyện kĩ năng làm bài. Cũng như hỗ trợ thầy cô trong quá trình giảng dạy. Hy vọng những tài liệu này sẽ giúp các em trong quá trình ôn luyện và đạt kết quả cao trong bài thi sắp tới.

Tiếng Anh là một trong những môn học quan trọng trong chương trình giáo dục phổ thông. Với mục tiêu đẩy mạnh chất lượng giáo dục và tạo cơ hội cho học sinh thể hiện tài năng, cuộc thi Học Sinh Giỏi Tiếng Anh đã được tổ chức trên toàn quốc. Trong đó, đề thi HSG Tiếng Anh lớp 9 là một trong những bài kiểm tra khó nhất và đòi hỏi sự nỗ lực học tập của các em.

Trong bài viết này, chúng ta sẽ cùng tìm hiểu về Đề Thi Học Sinh Giỏi Tiếng Anh Lớp 9 Sở GD Quảng Nam 2018-2019 Có File Nghe Và Đáp Án. Đây là một trong những bộ đề thi khó nhất của cuộc thi HSG Tiếng Anh lớp 9. Bộ đề thi này không chỉ kiểm tra khả năng đọc, nghe, viết, nói mà còn đòi hỏi các em phải có kiến thức sâu về ngữ pháp, từ vựng và khả năng sử dụng tiếng Anh trong các tình huống giao tiếp thực tế.

Dưới đây là bản đọc trực tuyến giúp thầy cô và các em học sinh có thể nghiên cứu Online hoặc bạn có thể tải miễn phí với phiên bản word để dễ dàng in ấn cũng như học tập Offline



SỞ GIÁO DỤC & ĐÀO TẠO

QUẢNG NAM

KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 9 THCS

NĂM HỌC 2018 – 2019


SECTION I: LISTENING (4.0 PTS)

Bài nghe gồm 3 phần, mỗi phần được nghe 2 lần, mở đầu và kết thúc mỗi phần có tín hiệu nhạc. Mọi hướng dẫn cho thí sinh (bằng tiếng Anh) đã có trong bài nghe.


Part 1: You will hear an English woman called Britta talking to an interviewer about her life in Berlin, the capital of Germany. For each question, choose the correct answer. Write your answer in the Answer Sheets. (2.0 pts)

1. How long has Britta lived in Berlin?

A. four years B. six years C. twenty years

2. What is her job?

A. A lecturer B. A journalist C. A newspaper pulisher

3. What does Britta say about living in Berlin?

A. She can’t sleep at night because of the traffic noise.

B. She misses the museums and theatres in Bonn.

C. She likes living in a big, busy city.

4. Britta doesn’t like the traffic in Berlin because ________.

A. The transport system isn’t good B. It’s noisy in the morning

C. Travel is very expensive

5. The area of Berlin where Britta lives is ________.

A. a good place to eat out B. a rather expensive place to live

C. a long way from the city centre

6. Her flat is ________.

A. old B. near the city center C. cheap

7. Britta loves ________.

A. going shopping B. going to the galleries C. going to the café

8. She says that her nephew, Philippe, likes going to ________.

A. the park with her B. the shop with his parents C. the gallery with her

9. She has a lot of friends who ________.

A. live near her B. work with her C. are still in England

10. Britta finds ________.

A. she misses England very much

B. her colleagues are very friendly

C. Berlin, where she is living now, is a friendly city



Part 2: You are going to listen to a conversation with a woman who wants to join an international social club. Listen and complete the form. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/ OR A NUMBER for each answer. Write your answer in the Answer Sheets. (1.0 pt)


International Social Club

APPLICATION FORM

Name: (0) Jenny Foo

Age: (00) 21 .

Nationality: (11) _______________

Address: (12) _____________ Road, Bondi

Mobile phone: (13) _______________

Occupation: (14) _______________

Free time interests: (15) _______________



Part 3: You will hear a conversation between a boy, Tom, and a girl, Sophie, about a TV quiz show. Listen and decide which of the following statements is True (T) or false (F). 0 is an example. Write your answer in the Answer Sheets. (1.0 pt)

0. Both Tom and Sophie agree that the presenter of the quiz show is very funny.

16. Tom is keen on a number of programmes shown on Channel 5.

17. Tom has previously recommended this quiz show to a number of friends.

18. Sophie is worried about not being able to answer any of the questions.

19. Tom warns that the questions become more difficult throughout the quiz.

20. Tom and Sophie decide to organise a school quiz together.


SECTION II: LEXICO – GRAMMAR (6.0 PTS)


Part 1: Choose the option (A, B, C or D) that best completes each of the following questions from 21 to 32. Write your answers in the Answer Sheets. (2.4 pts)


21. Lan: Would you like to have dinner with me?

Ann: ________.

A. Yes, I’d love to B. Yes, so do I C. I’m very happy D. Yes, it is

22. Mary: Could you do me a favor, please?

Jenny: ________

A. No, Thanks. I can manage. B. Yes. That’s very kind of you.

C. Never mind. D. Sure. What can I do for you?

23. ________ I wanted to find out first was how long it was going to take.

A. That B. What C. Who D. Where

24. By the time I applied, all the holiday vouchers _______ used up.

A. had been B. have been C. were D. had

25. I am going to have my eye ________ tomorrow.

A. to test B. test C. testing D. tested

26. You should shop ________ online to get the best price.

A. above B. under C. around D. in

27. Marrianne seemed to take ________ at my comments on her work.

A. annoyance B. insult C. offence D. advantage

28. As the drug took ________, the patient became quieter.

A. effect B. force C. influence D. action

29. When Tim was eating a cherry, he accidentally swallowed the _________.

A. nut B. stone C. seed D. core

30. The boy ________ that he had had anything to do with the break-in.

A. refused B. denied C. objected D. rejected

31. We bought some ________ last weekend.

A. lovely big German old glasses B. lovely German big old glasses

C. old lovely big German glasses D. lovely big old German glasses

32. The computer company I work for is ________ with a new video game system next month.

A. passing on B. breaking away C. coming out D. coming up

Part 2: For questions from 33 to 39, read the text below. Use the word given in capital at the end of some of the lines to form a word that fits in the gap in the same line. Write your answers in the Answer Sheets. (1.4 pts)

0.   Since its ___________ to the western world 200 years ago

INTRODUCE

33.  growing bonsais has grown in __________. Although some growers

POPULAR

34. are __________ and grow bonsais for their living, it is a fact that

PROFESSION

35.  the _________ are amateurs who do it for fun. Growing bonsais

MAJOR

36.  requires an _________ to think ahead and to wait without impatience

ABLE

37. for nature to take its course. Very often, _________ the only result

FORTUNE

38. from years of work is a plant killed by, for example an __________

EXPECT

39. frost. Many bonsai growers form clubs or __________ where they

ASSOCIATE

  can share their experiences. But the depth of satisfaction at raising a


  perfect plant is amazing.



Part 3: For questions from 40 to 45, look carefully at each line. Some of the lines are correct, and some have a word which should not be there. Tick (√) each correct line. If a line has a word which should not be there, write out the word. There are two examples at the beginning. Write your answers in the Answer Sheets. (1.2 pts)


Running is one of the cheapest and most effective forms of exercise. When you first take up the sport, it is important that to build up your strength slowly. You should, however, plan to go out for at least thirty minutes, running for a minute and walking for a minute.

It is a good idea to run on grass rather better than hard surfaces. This will help you to avoid injury to your muscles which you may not be accustomed to this kind of exercise. You have to wear clothes that are both waterproof and lightweight and you should take care over your choice of footwear. This is because of the right kind of shoes is absolutely essential for running.

0

00

40

41

42

43

44



45

.

that

...…….......

……………..

……………..

……………..

……………..

.

……………





Part 4: Think of ONE suitable preposition or particle to complete each of the sentences from 46 to 50. Write your answers in the Answer Sheets. (1.0 pt)

46. I was ________the impression that you like Indian food.

47. I must try and look ________ my notes before the exam.

48. Without a fridge, fresh food will go ________ very quickly.

49. My shoes have been worn _______ very quickly since I started walking to the office.

50. If he promises something, he’ll never go back _______ his word.













SECTION III: READING (5.0 PTS)

Part 1: For questions from 51 to 60, read the text below and decide which answer (A, B, C, or D) best fits each numbered gap. Write your answers in the Answer Sheets. (2.0 pts)

Sometimes ago, scientists began (51) _______ to find out whether it would be possible to set up a “village” under the sea. A special room was built and lowered (52) _______ the water of Port Sudan in the Red Sea. For 29 days, five men lived (53) _______ a depth of 40 feet. At a (54) _______ lower level, another two divers stayed for a week in a smaller ‘house’. On returning to the surface, the men said they had experienced no difficulty in breathing and had (55) _______ many interesting scientific observations. The captain of the party, Commander Cousteau, spoke of the possibility of (56) _______ the seabed. He said that some permanent stations were to be set up under the sea, and some undersea farms would provide food for the growing population of the world.

The divers in both ‘house’ spent most of their time (57) _______ the bottom of the sea. On four occasions, they went down to 360 feet and observed many extraordinary (58)_______ of the marine life, some of which had never been seen before. During their stay, Commander Cousteau and his divers reached a depth of 1000 feet and witnessed a gathering of an immense (59) _______ of crab which numbered, perhaps, hundreds of millions. They also found out that it was (60) _______ to move rapidly in the water in a special vessel known as a ‘diving saucer’.

51. A. research B. study C. experiments D. experiences

52. A. under B. into C. down D. below

53. A. to B. at C. with D. on

54. A. far B. more C. any D. some

55. A. made B. practised C. done D. exercised

56. A. implanting B. planting C. growing D. cultivating

57. A. inquiring B. requiring C. imploring D. exploring

58. A. families B. shapes C. forms D. breeds

59. A. pack B. school C. herd D. flock

60. A. able B. capable C. possible D. hardly



Part 2: Read the text below and choose the best ansswer to each of the questions from 61 to 65. Write your answers in the Answer Sheet. (1.0 pt)

Like many aspects of ancient history, the origins of cooking are unclear. It seems likely that prehistoric humans tasted cooked meat for the first time when someone decided to make a meal out of a wild animal that had died in a forest fire. Although the cooked meat was obviously tastier and easier to chew than the usual raw food, it also seems likely that they did not purposely use fire to prepare meat until well after its use for light, heat and safety was well-established. Just staying alive was an exhausting and time-consuming occupation, leaving little opportunity for non-essential activities like cooking.

Eventually, however, cooking did become a common practice, though the only method used for a very long time was roasting meat over an open fire. It is interesting that the first evidence of the use of another cooking method - wrapping food in wet leaves and steaming it over hot coals - was found in France, which is still considered by some to be the home of the most refined food preparation techniques.

For a period of time, anything that could hold liquid - including the skulls of dead animals - was used for cooking, but the greatest change in cooking techniques came with the creation of ceramic pots and other containers. This advance, combined with the domestication of animals and the planting of crops for food - which meant that less time and energy had to be used for hunting and gathering - led to the first real developments in cooking techniques, including the appearance of soups, stews and other savory dishes. Learning to preserve food, either through smoking, salting or drying, also made maintaining the supply much easier, and led to the development of new recipes as cooks tried to find ways to make dried meats and fish more interesting to eat.

61. The writer says that the beginnings of cooking _________.

A. are obvious B. are not really known

C. caused a forest fire D. came at the same time as the first use of fire

62. Why did early humans not begin cooking sooner?

A. It took too much time. B. They were bored by such tasks.

C. They preferred raw food. D. It was not a priority.

63. The author mentions France because_________.

A. cooking was invented there B. it is still famous for its cooking techniques

C. the first bread was made there D. leaves were first eaten there

64. What does the word “advance” in the third paragraph mean?

A. a positive development B. a problem

C. a type of cooking D. a type of food

65. The purpose of drying, smoking or salting food was to_________.

A. make it taste better B. make it last longer

C. make it easier to cook D. make it easier to gather


Part 3: For questions from 66 to 75, read an article about computers. Choose from the list (A-K) the sentence which best summarizes each part (66-75) of the articles. There is one extra sentence which you do not need to use. Write your answers in the Answer Sheets. (2.0 pts)

66. Machines which seem to think have become a regular feature of our lives. Tasks that 20 years ago would have been unthinkable are now simple for quite basic computers.

67. The most complex computers can boast remarkable achievements. Automatic pilots fly jumbo jets, and the most sophisticated airports such as Heathrow even the largest jets can now land in zero visibility, relying entirely on computers.

68. Chess is another field where the machine’s advances go far beyond mankind’s. The most advanced computers are now match for all but the very best players and it won’t be long before they will be capable of beating the champions.

69. But it is enough for us to describe these machines as intelligent, or are their achievements in reality just a success for the scientists who have programmed them to perform a series of tasks rapidly and efficiently?

70. Different people use the term “artificial intelligence” to mean different things. But before it can be argued successfully that we are in the presence of an artificial intelligence, we have to prove that a machine can- as a minimum- “learn” from the environment, independently of its programmer.

71. One important difference between computers and the human brain is that computers rely on “serial processing”. The fact that the computer may be able to win a complex game like chess simply reflects its ability to look at numerous possible series of moves at rapid speed and to “learn” not to make losing moves.

72. Quite apart from its ability to be influenced by the environment, the human brain differs from even the most advanced computer in that it operates with so-called “parallel processing”, doing several things at once.

73. Sir Clive Sinclair, one of the original computer experts, is convinced that parallel processing programs for computers will be with us soon, and that these will totally change society. With parallel processing, computers would be expected to “learn” better from their experiences and perhaps, be able to pass on the fruits of such learning to other computers, each in turn becoming more advanced. Thus could be born a generation of computers able to offer at least a more realistic attempt at intelligence.

74. Robots are already able to do all sorts of repetitive tasks currently performed by human beings. But the effective control remains with human brain.

75. And the idea of an artificial intelligence with a sense of humor and a conscience still seems a faraway dream. If, however, one was to believe in the faith of scientists working in the field of artificial intelligence, one would have to suspect that dreams just could become reality.

  1. It is certain whether computers should take the credit for what they can do.

  2. The next computers may operate in a similar way to the human brain.

  3. No computer has yet been invented which can cope with the details of human language.

  4. Human beings are no longer necessary in some situations.

  5. It is unlikely that computers will ever completely replace human beings.

  6. Computers can perform better than a human brain.

  7. Computers have more accurate memories than human beings.

  8. Human beings and computers use different methods to decide what they should do.

  9. There are certain things a computer must be able to do before it can be called “intelligent”.

  10. The expectations of what computers can do have changed over the years.

  11. While this does show advanced programming and does not show that the computer is learning independently of its programming and does not therefore show that it is intelligent.


SECTION IV: WRITING (5.0 PTS)

Part 1: For questions 76 to 83, use the sets of words to write meaningful sentences. Make all the changes and additions if necessary. 0 is an example. Write your answer in the Answer Sheets. (1.6 pts)

0. She/ go / school/ foot / yesterday./

=> She went to school on foot yesterday.

76. I / suggest/ you / look / another / job./

77. The film / so / boring / that / many people /left before / end./

78. After/ earthquake, / city / badly destroyed/ and many people/ homeless./

79. “If you / asked / me/ I / would have/ lend / car”,/ he / said / her./

80. It / believe/ man / escape / in / stolen car./

81. We/ used / help / each other / lot / when / we / still / get along/ each other./

82. It/ much /densely populated/ big cities/ small cities./

83. Most/ the problems / arose / due / no leadership / on / committee./


Part 2: For questions 84 to 90, finish each of the following sentences so that it has a similar meaning to the sentences printed before it, using the word given. DON’T CHANGE THE WORD GIVEN. Write your answers in the Answer Sheets. (1.4pts)


0. ‘Do you know how to get to the town center?’, she asked me. (WAY)

=> She asked me if I knew the way to the town centre.


84. The owners of restaurants are usually very rich. (WHO)

The people ___________________________________________________ very rich.

85. Sandra said that she was willing to work late. (MIND)

Sandra _______________________________________________________________.

86. I can't lift this table on my own. (UNLESS)

I ___________________________________________________________________.

87. House prices have risen dramatically this year. (INCREASE)

There has _____________________________________________________________.

88. The success of our local theater has made our city famous. (MAP)

The success __________________________________________________________.

89. We left quietly so that we didn’t disturb the baby. (TO)

So _________________________________________________________ quietly.

90. Nobody could possibly believe the story he told us. (BEYOND)

The story _____________________________________________________________.


Part 3: (2.0 pts)

Read this part of a letter from an English-speaking friend, Oliver.


" In your previous letter, you seemed very interested in travelling. Can you share with me the benefits of travelling?.”…

Now, write a letter to reply to Oliver. DO NOT WRITE ANY ADDRESSES AND NAMES.

Your letter must be about 150 words. Write your letter in the Answer Sheets.

_______________________________The end___________________________


SỞ GIÁO DỤC & ĐÀO TẠO

QUẢNG NAM

KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 9 THCS

NĂM HỌC 2018 – 2019

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM MÔN TIẾNG ANH 9

SECTION A: LISTENING (4.0 pts)

Part 1: Questions 1 to 10.

1

2

3

4

5

6

7

8

9

10

A

B

C

B

A

C

B

C

A

C


Part 2: Questions 11 to 15.

11

12

13

14

15

Malaysian

13 Angle sea/ Anglesea

040 422 9160

Economist

dancing (and singing)


Part 3: Questions 16 to 20. Write your answers (T or F)

0. F

16. T

17. T

18. F

19. T

20. F


SECTION B: LEXICO- GRAMMAR (6.0 pts)


Part 1. Questions 21 to 32.


21

22

23

24

25

26

27

28

29

30

31

32

A

D

B

A

D

C

C

A

B

B

D

C

Part 2. Questions 33 to 39.

0. INTRODUCTION

33. POPULARITY

34. PROFESSIONAL(S)

35. MAJORITY

36. ABILITY

37. UNFORTUNATELY

38. UNEXPECTED

39. ASSOCIATIONS

Part 3. Questions 40 to 45.

0.

00. that

40.

41.

42. better

43. you

44.

45. of

Part 4. Questions 46 to 50.

46. under

47. through

48. off

49. out

50. on


SECTION C: READING (5.0 pts)


Part 1. Questions 51 to 60.

51

52

53

54

55

56

57

58

59

60

C

B

B

A

C

D

D

C

B

C


Part 2. Questions 61 to 65.

61

62

63

64

65

B

D

B

A

B

Part 3. Questions 66 to 75.

66 - J

67 - D

68 - F

69 - A

70 - I

71 - H

72 - K

73 - B

74 - E

75 - C

SECTION D: WRITING (5.0 pts)

Part 1. Questions 76 to 83. Mỗi câu làm đúng đạt 0.2 điểm.

76. I suggest (that) you (should) look for another job.

77. The film was so boring that many people left before the end/ had left before it ended.

78. After the earthquake, the city was badly destroyed and many people became/ got/ were/ were made homeless.

79. ?If you had asked me, I would have lent you my/the car?, he said to her.

80. It is/was believed that the man (had) escaped in a stolen car.

81. We used to help each other a lot when we still got along with each other.

82. It is much more densely populated in big cities than (in) small cities.

83. Most of the problems arose due to no leadership on the committee.

Part 2. Questions 84 to 90. Mỗi câu làm đúng đạt 0.2 điểm.

84. The people who own restaurants are usually very rich.

85. Sandra said that she didn’t mind working late.

86. I can't lift this table unless you help me/ give me a (helping) hand/ someone helps me/ gives a (helping) hand.

87. There has been a dramatic increase in (the) house prices this year.

88. The success of our local theater has put our city on the map.

89. So as not to disturb the baby, we left quietly.

90. The story he told us was beyond belief/ what we thought possible/ what we could imagine.

Part 3 (2.0 pts): Guide for marking:

Band 5: Those scored from 1.7 ? 2.0 points should be as followings:

The writing fully achieves the desired effect on the reader. The use of language is confident with a varied range of structures and vocabulary. The ideas are linked with suitable linking devices. There may be some minor errors but these do not affect understanding.

Band 4: Those scored from 1.3 ? 1.6 points should be as followings:

The writing achieves the desired effect on the reader. The use of language is confident with a range of structures and vocabulary. The ideas are somewhat linked with linking devices. There may be some errors but these do not affect understanding.

Band 4: Those scored 0.9 ? 1.2 points should be as followings:

The writing may have problem in conveying the reader the content and message in order to achieve the desired effect. The use of language items lik
e structures and vocabulary is quite limited. There may be some linking between sentences but this linking is not always maintained. A number of errors are present but most of these do not affect the general comprehension of the writing.

Band 2: Those scored from 0.5 ? 0. 8 points should be as followings:

The writing struggles to achieve the desired goal set in the task. The use of language including vocabulary and structures is simple, limited and repetitive. There may be incomprehensible sentences and errors that prevent comprehension and communication. The reader has to work very hard to understand the writer?s ideas.

Band 1: Those scored from 0.1 ? 0.4 points should be as followings:

The writing causes a negative effect on the reader. The use of language including vocabulary and structures is very simple, limited and repetitive. There may be many incomprehensible sentences and numerous errors that prevent comprehension and communication. The reader has to work very hard to understand the writer?s ideas.

A score of 0 will be given for those writings that have too little language for scoring, are illegible, have incomprehensible contents, or are irrelevant to the topic.




Trong hành trình học tập, các em học sinh luôn tìm kiếm những tài liệu hữu ích để rèn luyện và nâng cao kỹ năng của mình. Đặc biệt, đối với môn Tiếng Anh, việc ôn tập và làm các đề thi Học Sinh Giỏi là cách hiệu quả để chuẩn bị tốt cho kì thi sắp tới.

Trong bài viết này, chúng ta sẽ cùng tìm hiểu về một tài liệu rất hữu ích cho các em học sinh lớp 9 trong việc ôn tập Tiếng Anh, đó là “Đề Thi Học Sinh Giỏi Tiếng Anh Lớp 9 Sở GD Quảng Nam 2018-2019 Có File Nghe Và Đáp Án”.

Với tài liệu này, các em sẽ có cơ hội rèn luyện và nâng cao kỹ năng nghe, nói, đọc và viết của mình thông qua việc làm các bài tập trong đề thi HSG. Bên cạnh đó, việc có đáp án sẽ giúp các em tự kiểm tra và đánh giá năng lực của mình, từ đó có thể sửa sai và cải thiện kết quả học tập.

Đặc biệt, tài liệu còn bao gồm file nghe giúp các em luyện nghe và phát âm tốt hơn. Với những lợi ích đáng giá này, “Đề Thi Học Sinh Giỏi Tiếng Anh Lớp 9 Sở GD Quảng Nam 2018-2019 Có File Nghe Và Đáp Án” chắc chắn sẽ là một trong những tài liệu không thể thiếu cho các em học sinh lớp 9.

Ngoài Đề Thi Học Sinh Giỏi Tiếng Anh Lớp 9 Sở GD Quảng Nam 2018-2019 Có File Nghe Và Đáp Án thì các đề thi trong chương trình lớp 9 sẽ được cập nhật liên tục và nhanh nhất có thể sau khi kỳ thi diễn ra trên Danh mục Kho Đề Thi nhằm giúp các bạn đọc thuận tiện trong việc tra cứu và đối chiếu đáp án. Quý thầy cô và các bạn đọc có thể chia sẻ thêm những tài liệu học tập hữu ích đến địa chỉ email của chúng tôi, nhằm xây dựng nên kho đề thi phong phú, đa dạng cho các em học sinh tham khảo và rèn luyện.

Đề thi tham khảo

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