Đề Thi Học Sinh Giỏi Tiếng Anh Lớp 6 Huyện Thanh Oai Có Đáp Án Và File Nghe – Đề 14

PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO HUYỆN THANH OAI

aif ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 6

NĂM HỌC: 2017-2018

MÔN: TIẾNG ANH

Thời gian: 120 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)

Chú ý: - Bộ đề thi này gồm có 06 trang, từ trang 01 đến trang 06.

- Thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp vào bộ đề thi này.

Điểm	Họ tên, chữ ký của người chấm thi số 1:	Số phách
- Bằng số:……………..	………………………………………...	(Do Chủ tịch hội đồng chấm thi ghi)
- Bằng chữ:……………	Họ tên, chữ ký của người chấm thi số 2:	…………………..
………………………...	………………………………………...

PART ONE: LISTENING (3.0 pts)

Listen and fill in the gaps: (15 0.2 = 3.0 pts)

Time

Time is (1) ..................................... that you should never waste. Once an (2) ..................................... is gone, it is gone forever. You should make the most of every minute.

Time is a funny thing. Some days (3) ..................................... by so slowly.

Those are the days that you do things that (4) ..................................... fun. When you are having fun, time just flies by. Time is made up of (5) ..................................... units.

(6) ..................................... turn into minutes, minutes turn into hours, hours turn into days, days turn into weeks,weeks turn into months, and months turn into years.

We measure our (7) ..................................... by time. We are very concerned with time.

Even little children are very conscious (8) ..................................... time.

Little children often want to appear older, so if you (9) ..................................... a three-year-old how old he is, he will often say three and a (10) ......................................

Many of our sayings are based on time.

"Give me a minute.", "Hold on a second.", "I'm (11) ..................................... out of time.", "Time's up.", "I just want an hour of your time."

All of (12) ..................................... are common things that we say, and they're all based on time.

We are a society that lives by the clock.

We almost all (13) ..................................... watches, and we glance at our watches a lot.

Time is something that we can't see, (14) ..................................... it is a big factor in our lives.

How many times a day do you look at a watch or a clock?

I bet you'd be surprised at just (15) ..................................... many times you do.

­­­-> Your answers:

1....................................	2....................................	3....................................	4....................................	5.....................................
6....................................	7....................................	8....................................	9....................................	10..................................
11..................................	12..................................	13..................................	14..................................	15..................................

PART TWO: PHONETICS: (2.0 pts)

I. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently: (5 0.2=1.0 pt)

16. A. brother B. summer C. orange D. dozen

17. A. plane B. paddy C. math D. flat

18. A. stereo B. lemonade C. eraser D. desk

19. A. workers B. students C. teachers D. doctors

20. A. washes B. couches C. sometimes D. benches

-> Your answers:

16..................................

17..................................

18..................................

19..................................

20..................................

II. Choose the word whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others.

(5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

21. A. motorbike	B. badminton	C. pagoda	D. citadel
22. A. vacation	B. collection	C. tomato	D. lemonade
23. A. canteen	B. country	C. classroom	D. housework
24. A. student	B. desert	C. housework	D. routine
25. A. accident	B. telephone	C. engineer	D. motorbike

-> Your answers:

21..................................

22..................................

23..................................

24..................................

25..................................

PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURES: (5.0 pts)

I. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences: (10 0.2 = 2.0 pts)

26. Is there ..................................... else you want, Mrs. Thuy? – No, thanks. That’s enough today.

A. a

B. an

C. some

D. anything

27. ..................................... go fishing this weekend? - Good idea!

A. What do we

B. Are we going

C. Would you like

D. Why don’t we

28. Listen! Who..................................... to your form teacher over there? – That’s my father.

A. is talking

B. does talk

C. is going to talk

D. talks

29. Let’s go to the bakery and buy ten ..................................... of bread! – Yes, let’s.

A. loaves

B. bars

C. bottles

D. cans

30. All of these students come to school in time. They’re never late ..................................... school.

A. to

B. in

C. for

D. at

31. Mum! Please buy some cooking oil. There ..................................... much cooking oil in the bottle.

A. aren’t

B. is not

C. isn’t

D. B & C are correct

32. Is Phanxipang..................................... moutain in the world? - No, just in Viet Nam.

A. the higher

B. the high

C. highest

D. the highest

33. Mr. Thang’s grandwoman is ..................................... woman. She is ninety years old.

A. a old

B. an old

C. not young

D. not very young

34. Our roads are quite dangerous places. All of us .....................................

A. must be careful

B. can be careful

C. mustn’t be careless

D. Both A&C are correct

35. My father doesn’t want much sugar in coffee. Just ....................................., please.

A. few

B. a few

C. little

D. a little

-> Your answers:

26..................................	27..................................	28..................................	29..................................	30..................................
31..................................	32..................................	33..................................	34..................................	35..................................

II. Give the correct form of the words given to complete the sentences. (10 0.2 = 2.0 pts)

36. That boy drives so fast. It's very …...................... for the other people.	DANGER
37. I like this kind of tree because it has a lot of green…......................	LEAF
38. Trung’s mother, Mrs. Hanh, is a very kind …......................	POLICE
39. There are some …...................... in the garden. They are planting roses.	WOMAN
40. Of all the structures in the world we know, the Great Wall of China is the …...................... one.	LONG
41. My new friend is very careful. He drives his car…......................	CARE
42. There are ten …...................... in our school library.	BOOK
43. Do you know the …...................... of this tree? – I don’t know.	HIGH
44. My birthday is on the …...................... of August.	THIRTY
45. What 's your …......................? - I weigh100 pounds.	WEIGH

-> Your answers:

36 ..................................	37 ..................................	38 ..................................	39 ..................................	40 ..................................
41 ..................................	42 ..................................	43 ..................................	44 ..................................	45 ..................................

III. Supply the correct forms of the verbs in brackets: (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

46. Your sister (do) ……………… the housework every day?

47. Don’t make such a noise! Our grandparents (sleep) ……………… in their room nearby.

48. What time your father (go) ……………… to work in the morning?

49. The students (visit) ……………… President Ho Chi Minh’s Mausoleum this weekend.

50. All the students in our school mustn’t (eat) ……………… food in the classes.

-> Your answers:

46. ..................................

47. ..................................

48. ..................................

49. ..................................

50. ..................................

PART FOUR: READING COMPREHENSION: (5.0 pts)

I. Choose the word or phrase that best fits each gap of the passage: (10 0.2 = 2.0 pts)

Mr. Hung is an engineer in (51)……………… very big factory. He lives in a small apartment on the (52)……………… floor of a high building in Ho Chi Minh City. The factory is not near (53) ……………… so he usually goes to work by bus, he rarely goes by motorbike. He (54)……………… home at 6.45 and come to his office at about 7.15 in the morning. (55)……………… is Saturday morning now, and Mr. Hung doesn't go to work, he is (56)……………… home, in bed. On Saturdays, he (57) ……………… at about seven o'clock. Then he sits in the living room and (58) ……………… breakfast with his wife at home. On Saturday afternoon, he usually plays tennis (59)……………… some of his friends or goes swimming in the swimming pool. On Saturday evenings, he (60)……………… at home, he often goes out to play chess with our neighbors. He's a good man and he's very kind to all of us.

51.	A. a	B. an	C. the	D. any
52.	A. two	B. double	C. twice	D. second
53.	A. house	B. he’s house	C. his house	D. him house
54.	A. leave	B. is leave	C. leaving	D. leaves
55.	A. It	B. It’s	C. Its	D. They
56.	A. in	B. at	C. on	D. with
57.	A. get up	B. gets up	C. getting up	D. is geting up
58.	A. has	B. having	C. have	D. to have
59.	A. in	B. with	C. to	D. about
60	A. not stay	B. isn’t stay	C. doesn’t stay	D. no staying

-> Your answers:

51.	52.	53.	54.	55.
56.	57.	58.	59.	60.

II. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. (10 0.2 =2.0 pts)

New Year is one of the most important festivals in the United States. On New Year’s Eve, most (61)……………… go to the parties. At twelve (62) ………………at night, everyone says “Happy New Year” and they wish their friends (63) ……………… relatives good luck. New Year’s parties usually last a long (64) ……………… . Many people don’t go (65)……………… until next morning. Another holiday, Halloween, is mainly for children. On this holiday, children dress as witches, ghosts (66) ……………… others. Most children go from house (67) ……………… house asking for candy or fruit. If people at the house don’t give (68)……………… candy, the children will (69)……………… a trick on them. But this hardly happens. Almost people (70)……………… them candy or fruit.

-> Your answers:

61.	62.	63.	64.	65.
66.	67.	68.	69.	70.

III. Read the text then make questions and answer them: (5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

Tom and Jane want to know their friends’ favorite free time activities, so they are asking their friends about what they like to do in their free time. Many of their friends say that usually eat and drink as well as chat with their friends. They like to talk about many things around them: their teachers, their friends, their families as well as their favorite musicians, singers, soccer players and movie stars. There are some popular activities after lessons at their school such as: skipping rope, reading books and playing sports. At home, many of their friends say they like to watch TV, listen to music or play computer games. They rarely go to the movies. Some of the girls like to go shopping. Very few of their friends like to do English exercises on the Internet. Many of their friends don’t take part in art, music club.

71. What/ many of/ Tom and Jane's friends/ usually do/ their free time?

-> ………………………………..…………………………………………….……..……

…………………………………………………………………………….……..……

72. What/ their friends/ like/ talk about?

-> …………………..………………………………………………………….……..……

…………………………………………………………………………….……..……

73. many of their friends/ like to watch TV, listen to music/ or play computer games/ home?

-> …………………………………………………………………………….……..……

…………………………………………………………………………….……..……

74. very few/ or many/ their friends/ like to do English exercises/ the Internet?

-> …………………………………………………………………………….……..……

..………………………………………………………………………….……..……

75. What/ passage/ talk about?

(Free time activities/ Tom and Jane's friends/.)

-> ……………………….…………………………………………………….……..……

…………………………………………………………………………….……..……

PART FIVE: WRITING: (5.0 pts)

I. Rewrite the sentences without changing the meaning. Use the words in brackets:

(5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

76. How much are these notebooks, Hoa?

-> .........................................................................................................................? (cost)

77. My bike is cheaper than Ha's bike.

->.................................................................................................................... (expensive)

78. No one in our village is as handsome as Peter.

->........................................................................................................................... (most)

79. How tall is your younger brother, Joko?

->..........................................................................................................................? (age)

80. Does your brother enjoy playing Chinese chess?

->.................................................................................................................? (interested)

II. Use the following words and phrases to write complete and meaningful sentences. Make all the necessary changes and additions if necessary. (5 0.2=1.0 pt)

81. your friends/ going/ have / picnic/ near/Red River?

->...............................................................................................................................................

82. We would/ some oranges/and two/ glass/ milk/ please.

->...............................................................................................................................................

83. How much/ rice/ many eggs/ these farmers/ produce/ every year?

->...............................................................................................................................................

84. Anh / often/ play/sports/ his free time, but/ sometimes/ go/ camping/ his classmates.

->...............................................................................................................................................

85. Phuong's brother/ play/ soccer/ moment./ He/ play/ it/ every afternoon/ after school.

->...............................................................................................................................................

III. Write an essay (120 words) about your family: (3.0 pts)

(The essay must have the title and three parts: Opening – Body and Conclusion.

Don’t show your proper names/ school/ village…)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….……………………..

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….……………………..

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….……………………..

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 6 NĂM HỌC: 2017 - 2018

MÔN: TIẾNG ANH

PART ONE: LISTENING (3.0 pts)

Listen and fill in the gaps: (15 0.2 = 3.0 pts)

1. something	2. hour	3. go	4. aren't	5. different
6. Seconds	7. lives	8. of	9. ask	10. half
11. running	12. these	13. wear	14. but	15. how

PART TWO: PHONETICS: (2.0 pts)

I. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently: (5 0.2=1.0 pt)

16. C. orange

17. A. plane

18. C. eraser

19. B. students

20. C. sometimes

II. Choose the word whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others.

(5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

21. C. pagoda

22. D. lemonade

23. A. canteen

24. D. routine

25. A. engineer

PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURES: (5.0 pts)

I. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences: (10 0.2 = 2.0 pts)

26. D. anything	27. D. Why don’t we	28. A. is talking	29. A. loaves	30. C. for
31. D. B & C are correct	32. D. the highest	33. B. an old	34. D. Both A & C are correct	35. D. a little

II. Give the correct form of the words given to complete the sentences. (10 0.2 = 2.0 pts)

36. dangerous	37. leaves	38. policewoman	39. women	40. longest
41. carefully	42. bookshelves	43. height	44. thirtieth	45. weight

III. Supply the correct forms of the verbs in brackets: (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

46. Does…do

47. are sleeping

48. does…go

49. are going to visit

50. eat

PART FOUR: READING COMPREHENSION: (5.0 pts)

I. Choose the word or phrase that best fits each gap of the passage: (10 0.2 = 2.0 pts)

-> Your answers:

51. A. a	52. D. second	53. C. his house	54. D. leaves	55. A. It
56. B. at	57. B. gets up	58. A. has	59. B. with	60. C. doesn’t stay

II. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. (10 0.2 =2.0 pts)

61. people	62. o’clock	63. and	64. time	65. home
66. or	67. to	68. them	69. play	70. give

III. Read the text then make questions and answer them: (5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

71. What do many of Tom and Jane's friends usually do in their free time?

-> They usually eat, drink and chat with their friends.

72. What do their friends like to talk about?

-> They like to talk about many things around them.

37. Do many of their friends like to watch TV, listen to music or play computer games

at home?

-> Yes, they do.

74. Do very few or many of their friends like to do English exercises on the Internet?

-> Very few of their friends like to do English exercises on the Internet.

75. What does the passage talk about?

-> The passage talks about free time activities of Tom and Jane's friends.

PART FIVE: WRITING: (5.0 pts)

I. Rewrite the sentences without changing the meaning. Use the words in brackets:

(5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

76. How much do these notebooks cost, Hoa?

77. Ha's bike is more expensive than my bike/ my one/ mine.

78. Peter is the most handsome in our village.

79. What is your younger brother's age, Joko?

80. Is your brother interested in playing Chinese chess?

II. Use the following words and phrases to write complete and meaningful sentences. Make all the necessary changes and additions if necessary. (5 0.2=1.0 pt)

81. Are your friends going to have a picnic near the Red River?

82. We would like some oranges and two glasses of milk, please.

83. How much rice and how many eggs do these farmers produce every year?

84. Anh often plays sports in his free time, but he sometimes goes camping with his classmates.

85. Phuong's brother is playing soccer at the moment. He/ plays it every afternoon after school.

III. Write an essay (120 words) about your family: (3.0 pts)

(The essay must have the title and three parts: Opening – Body and Conclusion.

Don’t show your proper names/ school/ village…)

- The opening: The essay must write something relating to the topic “How the family is, the number of members…”. (0.5pt)

- The body: Write about at least three reasons explaining about what they do in general and in details…, the sentences must contain connectors and link words... (2,0 pts)

- The conclusion: Write about the writers' ideas. (0.5 pt)

* Note: The essay that has 3.0 points must have:

- Long enough (At least 200 words or maybe more).

- Correct vocabulary and structures.

- Don't tell the proper names (The school, the student's/ teacher’s name/ ...).