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Đề Thi Học Sinh Giỏi Tiếng Anh 7 Huyện Thanh Oai Có Đáp Án Và File Nghe – Đề Số 1

Đề Thi Học Sinh Giỏi Tiếng Anh 7 Huyện Thanh Oai Có Đáp Án Và File Nghe – Đề Số 1 được Trang Tài Liệu sưu tầm với các thông tin mới nhất hiện nay. Đề thi này sẽ giúp các em học sinh ôn tập, củng cố kiến thức, rèn luyện kĩ năng làm bài. Cũng như hỗ trợ thầy cô trong quá trình giảng dạy. Hy vọng những tài liệu này sẽ giúp các em trong quá trình ôn luyện và đạt kết quả cao trong bài thi sắp tới.

Trong hành trình khám phá tiếng Anh, sự thử thách và đánh giá không ngừng là những bước quan trọng để phát triển khả năng ngôn ngữ của chúng ta. Và “Đề Thi Học Sinh Giỏi Tiếng Anh 7 Huyện Thanh Oai Có Đáp Án Và File Nghe – Đề Số 1” là một tài liệu vô cùng quý giá và hữu ích để các em có thể đối mặt và vượt qua những thử thách trong tiếng Anh. Trong bài viết này, chúng ta sẽ khám phá và trải nghiệm đề thi thú vị này, được thiết kế cho các học sinh giỏi ở huyện Thanh Oai. Từ ngữ pháp, từ vựng, đọc hiểu cho đến viết và nghe, chúng ta sẽ thử sức và áp dụng những kỹ năng ngôn ngữ để nâng cao trình độ tiếng Anh của mình. Đáp án và file nghe đi kèm sẽ giúp chúng ta tự đánh giá và cải thiện khả năng của mình. Qua việc làm quen với các dạng câu hỏi và đề thi, chúng ta sẽ trở nên tự tin hơn, rèn luyện tư duy và mở rộng kiến thức tiếng Anh của mình. Hãy sẵn sàng đối mặt với những thử thách mới, tìm hiểu và khám phá ngôn ngữ thông qua “Đề Thi Học Sinh Giỏi Tiếng Anh 7 Huyện Thanh Oai Có Đáp Án Và File Nghe – Đề Số 1”. Chúng ta hãy cùng nhau vươn tới những đỉnh cao mới và trở thành những người học viên giỏi trong tiếng Anh.

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PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO HUYỆN THANH OAI

aif ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 7

NĂM HỌC: 2016 - 2017

ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC

MÔN: TIẾNG ANH

Thời gian: 120 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)



Chú ý: - Bộ đề thi này gồm có 09 trang, từ trang 01 đến trang 06.

- Thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp vào bộ đề thi này.



Điểm

Họ tên, chữ ký của người chấm thi số 1:

Số phách

- Bằng số:……………..

………………………………………...

(Do Chủ tịch hội đồng chấm thi ghi)

- Bằng chữ:……………

Họ tên, chữ ký của người chấm thi số 2:

…………………..

………………………...

………………………………………...


PART ONE: LISTENING Listen and fill in the gaps: (15 0.2 = 3.0 pts)

Vacation

My family and I went on vacation to Lake Huron - The water is beautiful and (1)…………….. there, and the sand is nice and white.

The week that we were there was very hot, the sun was hot, but the water was still very cold. I went swimming and (2)……….…….. to catch little fish in my hands, I was careful not to get sunburned. We stayed at a (3)……….…….. that had a pool and a game room, I played pinball and video games sometimes. I liked to swim in the hotel (4)…….……….., but I liked the beach better. I would lie on a big (5)………….….. towel and get warm; then I would jump in the water and cool off.

Sometimes I would just lie on the sand and watch the waves roll up on the (6)….…………...

I found some seashells, and I saw a (7)……….…….. walking on the sand.

At first I was a bit lonely because I didn't know anyone there. It wasn't long before I met some other (8)……….…….. at my age. We built sandcastles together and swam in the lake. The other kids were from different (9)……….…….., so we told each other stories about our schools and friends. We found that we had a lot in (10)…….……….. even though we were from different places.

Our families got together and went to (11)…….……….. together. We played volleyball on the beach, and we sat around a campfire at night and sang songs.

At the (12)………….….. we would roast marshmallows on a stick. I always (13)………….….. my marshmallows. That is okay. I like them that way.

Mostly we just swam in the lake until we were very tired. I was (14)…….……….. when our vacation was over. I had a good time at Lake Huron, I met some very good friends there.

We still write to each other. (15)……….…….. we'll see each other next summer.


-> Your answers:

1..................................

2..................................

3..................................

4..................................

5..................................

6..................................

7..................................

8..................................

9..................................

10..................................

11..................................

12..................................

13..................................

14..................................

15..................................

­­­

PART TWO: PHONETICS: (2.0 pts)

I. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently: (5 0.2=1.0 pt)

16. A. returned

B. divided

C. mentioned

D. improved

17. A. young

B. enough

C. souvenir

D. encourage

18. A. gather

B. healthy

C. those

D. southern

19. A. school

B. chapter

C. character

D. orchestra

20. A. seashore

D. bookstore

C. sew

D. opposite


-> Your answers:

16..................................

17..................................

18..................................

19..................................

20..................................


II. Choose the word whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others:

(5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

21. A. disease

B. awful

C. receive

D. decide

22. A. symptom

B. surgery

C. horrible

D. material

23. A. stomachache

B. direction

C. compliment

D. moderate

24. A. calendar

B. expensive

C. vacation

D. appointment

25. A. delicious

B. suitable

C. beautiful

D. horrible


-> Your answers:

21..................................

22..................................

23..................................

24..................................

25..................................


PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURES: (5.0 pts)

I. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences: (10 0.2 = 2.0 pts)

26. The word “cook” in the sentence “My mother is a good cook” is …………….……

A. a verb

B. an adverb

C. an adjective

D. a noun

27. Linda answered these questions …………….……than her friend, Sarah.

A. intelligent

B. more intelligently

C. most intelligent

D. more intelligent

28. We…………….…playing soccer interesting because we can play them with our friends.

A. think

B. find

C. tell

D. say

29. Of the two students over there, my younger brother is …………….……

A. tall

B. taller

C. the taller

D. the tallest

30. We are free now. Shall we go to our club’s party? - …………….……

A. Yes, I shall

B. Yes, we should

C. Yes, we go

D. Yes, let’s

31. My brother and I usually spends about two hours ……………………in the evening.

A. do our homework

B. to do our homework

C. doing our homework

D. to doing our homework

32. The boys hurt …………….……when they climbed down the tree.

A. one another

B. each other

C. himself

D. themselves

33. When I saw your mother this morning, I thought she looked …………….……

A. happy

B. happily

C. to be happy

D. very happily

34. The books here are …………….……more expensive than those at the shop on the corner.

A. very

B. quite

C. much

D. many

35. Who ……………………you to come and see me, Linh? - My father did.

A. spoke

B. told

C. said

D. tells


-> Your answers:

26..................................

27..................................

28..................................

29..................................

30..................................

31..................................

32..................................

33..................................

34..................................

35..................................



II. Give the correct form of the words given to complete the sentences: (10 0.2 =2.0 pts)

36. Catching the common cold is very ……………..……to everybody. PLEASE

37. Basketball is a/an ...............................after school activity in Viet Nam.

Not many people play this sport. POPULARITY

38. Trung’s uncle is a .............................. His job is to cut, wash and shape hair. HAIR

39. The teacher says, “Huy, you will be a ...............................artist one day”. FAME

40. Ha says my cold will last for a few days and it will............................... APPEAR

41. All of us must remember to eat ………………... SENSE

42. There are over 200 ………….in my uncle’s company. EMPLOY

43. Nowadays, walking is a fun, easy and ..............................activity for us. EXPENSIVE

44. My uncle, Mr. Long, can speak English ............................... FLUENCY

45. Lan’s brother is a ................................ and he plays it very well. PIANO

-> Your answers:

36 ..................................

37 ..................................

38 ..................................

39 ..................................

40 ..................................

41 ..................................

42 ..................................

43 ..................................

44 ..................................

45 ..................................



III. Supply the correct forms of the verbs in brackets: (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

A few weeks ago, Mandy Poole (46. write) .................................... to Sunshine television. She wanted to be on their breakfast time quize show, (47. call) .................................... “Lucky Break”. Mandy loves the show and she (48. watch) .................................... the show every day. She is watching the show at the moment, while she (49. have) .................................... her breakfast. She (50. be) .................................... very surprised soon, because the show’s presenter, Russell Dean, has chosen her name and he is going to call her up.


-> Your answers:

46.

47.

48.

49.

50.

PART FOUR: READING COMPREHENSION: (5.0 pts)

I. Choose the word or phrase that best fits each gap of the passage: (10 0.2 = 2.0 pts)

British parents are always (51) ...………….….that their children spend too much time (52) .....………….TV and not enough time doing other activities like sports and reading. A (53) .....…….….survey of people’s free time activities (54) ....……….….that young people spend about 23 hours a week in (55) .....…….….of the television set, that means over 3 hours (56) .....…….….. (57) .....…….…., the average adult watches even more: 28 hours a week. Every household in the country has a TV set and over half have two or more. (58)....…………….to the survey, people do not only sit in their living room watching TV but also watch it in the kitchen and in bed as well.

We can not deny that television also (59)....………….….some negative effects especially children, because many films shown on TV contain violence, crime and other bad things. Excessive watching of TV by children has lowered (60).....……….….results in studying at school.

51.

A.

complain

B.

complaining

C.

complains

D.

complained

52.

A.

to watch

B.

watch

C.

watching

D.

watched

53.

A.

recent

B.

recently

C.

late

D.

lately

54.

A.

show

B.

to show

C.

showing

D.

shows

55.

A.

back

B.

front

C.

side

D.

behind

56.

A.

a day

B.

a week

C.

a month

D.

a year

57.

A.

Surprise

B.

Surprised

C.

Surprisingly

D.

To surprise

58.

A.

Because

B.

Addition

C.

Besides

D.

According

59.

A.

have

B.

having

C.

has

D.

had

60.

A.

its

B.

their

C.

his

D.

her


-> Your answers:

51.

52.

53.

54.

55.

56.

57.

58.

59.

60.


II. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space: (10 0.2 =2.0pts)

Do want to be fitter and healthier? Would you like to look younger? Do you want to feel (61).....………….….relaxed? Then try a few days at a health farm. Health farms are becoming (62).....………….….of the most popular places (63).....………….….a short break. I went to Henley Manor for a weekend. It’s (64).....………….….largest health farm in the country (65).....………….….it isn’t the most expensive. After two days of exercise I (66).....………….….ten times better. But the best thing for me was the food. It was all very healthy, of (67).....………….….but it was excellent, too!

If you’re looking for something a (68).....………….….cheaper, try a winter break.

Winter is the darkest and the coldest (69).....………….….of the year, and it can also be the worst time for your body. We all eat too (70).....………….….and we don’t take enough exercise. A lot of health farm offer lower prices Monday to Friday from November to March.


-> Your answers:

61.

62.

63.

64.

65.

66.

67.

68.

69.

70.

III. Read the text then make questions and answer them: (5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

We are students and we are sure that you are interested in sports. Many of you certainly play such games as volleyball or football, basketball or tennis. People who play a game are players. Players forms teams and play matches against each other teams – their opponents. Two people playing with each other are partners. Each team can lose or win. In a football match, players try to score as many goals as they can.

There are so many kinds of sports such as cycling, boxing, swimming, gymnastics, rowing and many more. You can take an active part in all of them or you can just be a devoted fan. Eveybody may choose the sport he is fond of or interested in.

71. What games/ many/ us/ play?

-> …………………………………………………………………………….……..……

…………………………………………………………………………….……..……

72. Who/ be called/ partners?

-> …………………………………………………………………………….……..……

…………………………………………………………………………….……..……

73. What/ players/ try/ do/ football match?

-> …………………………………………………………………………….……..……

…………………………………………………………………………….……..……

74. We/ take part/ all kinds/ sports?

-> …………………………………………………………………………….……..……

…………………………………………………………………………….……..……

* 75. you/ be interested/ sports? What/ sports/ you/ be fond of?

-> …………………………………………………………………………….……..……

…………………………………………………………………………….……..……


PART FIVE: WRITING: (5.0 pts)

I. Rewrite the sentences without changing the meaning: (5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

76. Whenever Thuy Linh went to Da Lat, she bought a lot of flowers.

-> Thuy Linh never went ………………………………….……………………….

77. Both of the chairs are uncomfortable.

-> Neither of………………………………………………………………………..

78. It takes my teacher of Literature about fifteen minutes to walk to school to every day.

-> My teacher of Literature spends………………………………….………………

79. Mr. John walked very slowly because his leg was injured.

-> Because of………………………………….……………….……………………

80. My cousin, Nam, plays soccer skillfully.

-> My cousin, Nam is ……………………………………………………………………


II. Write complete sentences using the suggested words: (5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

81. Bill Gates was born/ 1955/ Washington State . He/ grow up/ rich family. By 1997, he/ the richest/ man/ United States.

…………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………

82. Traveling/ train/ much/ slower/ but/ interesting/ than/ traveling/ plane.

…………………………………………………………………………………………………

83. My dad/ have/ lot/ beautiful/ carved eggs/ but/ never/ sell/ any/ them.

…………………………………………………………………………………………………

84. You/ can take/ university courses/ home/ with/ help/ video cassette recorders.

…………………………………………………………………………………………………

85. Learn/ English/ well/ very important/ all of us/ get/ good job/ future.

…………………………………………………………………………………………………

III. Write an essay (about 150 words) about your last vacation: (3.0 pts)

(The essay must have a title and three parts: Opening – Body and Conclusion.

Don’t show your proper names/ school/ village…)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….……………………..

ĐÁP ÁN

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 7

NĂM HỌC: 2016 - 2017

MÔN: TIẾNG ANH

PART ONE: LISTENING Listen and fill in the gaps: (15 0.2 = 3.0 pts)

­­­

1. blue

2. tried

3. hotel

4. pool

5. beach

6. shore

7. crab

8. kids

9. towns

10. common

11. restaurants

12. campfire

13. burn

14. sorry

15. Maybe


PART TWO: PHONETICS: (2.0 pts)

I. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently: (5 0.2=1.0 pt)

16 - B. divided

17- C. souvenir

18- B. healthy

19- B. chapter

20- D. opposite


II. Choose the word whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others.

(5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

21. B. awful

22. D. material

23. B. direction

24. A. calendar

25. A. delicious


PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURES: (5.0 pts)

I. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences: (10 0.2 = 2.0 pts)

26. D.

a noun

27. B.

more intelligently

28. B.

find

29. C.

the taller

30. D.

Yes, let’s

31. C. doing

our homework

32. D. themselves

33. A.

happy

34. C.

much

35. B.

told


II. Give the correct form of the words given to complete the sentences: (10 0.2 = 2.0 pts)

36. unpleasant

37. unpopular

38. hairdresser

39. famous

40. disappear

41. sensibly

42. employees

43. inexpensive

44. fluently

45. pianist


III. Supply the correct forms of the verbs in brackets: (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

46. wrote

47. called

48. watches

49. is having

50. is going to be


PART FOUR: READING COMPREHENSION: (5.0 pts)

I. Choose the word or phrase that best fits each gap of the passage: (10 0.2 = 2.0 pts)

51. B.

complaining

52. C.

watching

53. A.

recent

54. D.

shows

55. B.

front

56. A.

a day

57. C.

Surprisingly

58. D.

According

59. C.

has

60. B.

their


II. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space: (10 0.2 =2.0 pts)

61. more

62. one

63. for

64. the

65. but

66. felt

67. course

68. bit/ little

69. time/season

70. much

III. Read the text then make questions and answer them: (5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

71. What games do many of us play?

Many of us play such games as volleyball or football, basketball or tennis.

72. Who are called partners?

Two people playing with each other are partners.

73. What do players try to do in a football match?

They try to score as many goals as they can.

74. Can we take part in all kinds of sports?

Yes, we can (take part in all kinds of sports).

75. Are you interested in sports? What sports are you fond of?

(Yes, I am. I’m fond of …./ No, I’m not).


PART FIVE: WRITING: (5.0 pts)

I. Rewrite the sentences without changing the meaning: (5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

76. Thuy Linh never went went to Da Lat without buying a lot of flowers.

77. Neither of the chairs are comfortable.

78. My teacher of Literature spends about fifteen minutes walking to school every day.

79. Because of Mr. John’s injured leg, he walked very slowly .

80. My cousin, Nam, is a skillful soccer player.


II. Write complete sentences using the suggested words: (5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

81. Bill Gates was born in 1955 in Washington State. He grew up in a rich family.

By 1997, he was the richest man in the United States.

82. Traveling by train is much slower but it's more interesting than traveling by plane.

83. My dad has a lot of beautiful carved eggs, but he never sells any of them.

84. You can take university courses at home with the help of video cassette recorders.

85. Learning English well is very important for all of us to get a good job in the future.

III. Write an essay (about 150 words) about your last vacation: (3.0 pts)

(The essay must have a title and three parts: Opening – Body and Conclusion.

Don’t show your proper names/ school/ village…)


- The opening: The essay must write something relating to the topic “Where he/she went…”. (0.5pt)

- The body: Write about: Where he/she went to; Who to go with; the activities; the sentences must have connectors and link words... (2,0 pts)

- The conclusion: Write about the writers' ideas or what they thought about the vacation (s).

(0.5 pt)

* Note: The essay that has 3.0 points must have:

- Long enough (At least 150 words or maybe more).

- Correct vocabulary and structures.

- Don't tell the proper names (The school, the student's/ teacher’s name/ ...).



Ngoài Đề Thi Học Sinh Giỏi Tiếng Anh 7 Huyện Thanh Oai Có Đáp Án Và File Nghe – Đề Số 1 thì các đề thi trong chương trình lớp 7 sẽ được cập nhật liên tục và nhanh nhất có thể sau khi kỳ thi diễn ra trên Danh mục Kho Đề Thi nhằm giúp các bạn đọc thuận tiện trong việc tra cứu và đối chiếu đáp án. Quý thầy cô và các bạn đọc có thể chia sẻ thêm những tài liệu học tập hữu ích đến địa chỉ email của chúng tôi, nhằm xây dựng nên kho đề thi phong phú, đa dạng cho các em học sinh tham khảo và rèn luyện.

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