Bộ 20 Đề thi THPT Quốc gia 2021 môn Anh

BỘ 20 ĐỀ LUYỆN THI TÔT NGHIỆP THPT – MÔN TIẾNG ANH – NĂM HỌC 2020-2021

PRACTICE TEST 1 - 2021

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1. A. takes B. develops C. burns D. laughs

Question 2. A. chamber B. ancient C. danger D. ancestor

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3. A. schedule B. reserve C. wildlife D. beauty

Question 4. A. employment B. atmosphere C. company D. customer

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5. Neither of the boys came to school yesterday, ________?

      A. didn’t they B. do they C. did they D. don’t they

Question 6. ________ massage relieves pain and anxiety, eases depression and speeds up recovery from medical problems.

A. a B. the C. 0 D. an

Question 7. I believe that he was concerned ________ all those matters which his wife metioned.

A. upon B. over C. above D. with

Question 8. It's time for us ________ in efficiency and renewable energy, rebuild our cities, towns, municipalities and states.

A. to invest B. invest C. investing D. invested

Question 9. If I ________, I would express my feelings.

A.  were asked B. would ask C.  had been asked D.  asked

Question 10. We ________ close friends for many years since we were in grade 7. 

A. are B. are being C. have been D. had been

Question 11. ________the ability to delay normal cognitive decline as we age, there are significant social benefits to lifelong learning.

A. Aside from B. In addition C. Moreover D. Furthermore

Question 12. I will send you some postcards, ________.

A. until I will arrive at the destination B. as soon as I arrive at the destination

C. when I arrived at the destination D. after I had arrived  at the destination

Question 13. The Perfect Pet Parlor is a chain of stores ________ a large selection of pet food and pet accessories at a reasonable price with excellent sales support.

A.  sell B. sells C. sold D. selling

 Question 14. Nobody wears clothes like that any more – they’re ________.

A. fashion B. unfashionable C. fashionable D. fashionably

Question 15. There are other problems of city life which I don't propose to ________ at the moment.

A. go into B. go around C. go for D. go up

Question 16. I hope you ________ the point of everything your mother and I do for you.

A. annoy B. have C. see D. take

Question 17. At first, I was eager to do yoga in the morning, but later I got cold ________.

A. mind            B. head            C. hands            D. feet

Question 18. He decided to withdraw from the powerboat race as he had a (n) ________ of danger.

A. omen B. premonition C. foreboding D. prediction

Question 19. Though she lost her job last month, she still wanted to save ________ so she said that she had left it willingly.

A. mouth B. face C. reputation D. fame

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 20. After a long lunch hour, business resumes as usual.

A. continues B. resurfaces C. delays D. responds

Question 21. While Tom Spinkler was travelling along Wagon Wheel Road in Big Cypress Swamp in South Florida, he came across a young snake.

A. run up B. run down C. run into D. run out

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22. He was once a benevolent man who gave a lot of his money to local charities

A. generous           B. selfish           C. innocent           D. bossy

Question 23. It's not beyond the realm of possibility that some schools may have to cut sport altogether.

A. possible B. impossible C. unlikely D. certain

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 24. Thomas asked Jane about the flight announcement.

- Thomas: “Has an annoucement been made about the nine o’clock flight to Paris?”

- Jane: “________.”

A. Not yet B. Yes, it is nine o’clock

C. I don’t think so D. Sorry, I don’t

Question 25. Alice asks Mary’s opinion about driving to the countryside at weekend.

- Alice: “How about having a drive to the countryside this weekend?”

- Mary: “________.”

A. That’s a good idea B. Not at all C. No, thanks D. Never mind

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each the numbered blanks.

The Covid-19 coronavirus outbreak is a new illness and scientists are still (26) ________how it spreads from person to person, but similar viruses tend to spread via cough and sneeze droplets. When an infected person coughs or sneezes, they release droplets of saliva or mucus. These droplets can fall on people in the vicinity and can be either directly inhaled or picked up on the hands then (27)________when someone touches their face, causing infection. For flu, some hospital guidelines define exposure as being within six feet of an infected person (28) ________ sneezes or coughs for 10 minutes or longer. Viruses can also be spread through droplets landing on surfaces such as seats on buses or trains or desks in school. (29)______, whether this is a main transmission route depends on how long viruses survive on surfaces – this can vary from hours to months. There is anecdotal evidence that the virus can be spread by people before they have symptoms. Some (30)_______ illnesses such as flu can be passed from one person to another before symptoms occur – but the extent to which this is happening with the new coronavirus is not well understood yet.

                                                                               (Adapted from: https://medihome.com.vn)

Question 26. A. admitting B. Presuming C. assessing D. accounting

Question 27. A. transferred B. exchanged C. transformed D. emerged

Question 28. A. which B. where C. who D. when

Question 29. A. Moreover B. However C. Therefore D. In fact

Question 30. A. every B. one C. another D. other

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the question.

PLASTIC AND THE ENVIRONMENT

Plastic is a material we use every day. The first plastics were made more than 100 years ago from parts of plants. Plastics are now made from oil, coal and natural gas. We are using up these things so fast that the Earth’s supplies may run out. Because of this, scientists are investigating new ideas for making plastics from plants such as sweet potato, bamboo and flax.

Things made from plastic can be useful for people but bad for the planet. Some plastics can last for a long time without wearing out, and can be difficult to get rid of when they are not needed. They can remain in rubbish dumps called landfill sites for hundreds of years. Landfills can be smelly, ugly, and harmful to our planet.

Recycling is a good way to get rid of unwanted plastics. Recycled waste materials can be used again to make new products. This can be difficult as different types of plastic need to be recycled in different ways. Some kinds of plastics can be melted down and used to make new things such as bags and bottles. Others can be made into fibres (strands of material) for clothing.

Another way to protect the environment is to use canvas bags for shopping rather than plastic ones. A lot of plastic objects can also be reused. Plastic bottles can be refilled many times, rather than throwing them away once they are empty. Unwanted plastic goods such as CDs and toys can be sold or given away to charity shops.

                                                                               (Adapted from: https://www.esolcourses.com)

Question 31. What is the passage mainly about?

A. The history of plastic and its usefulness

B. Materials that plastic is made of

C. Plastic: effects and solutions to the problem

D. The ways to reduce the harm of plastics on the environment

Question 32.  The phrase “get rid of” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.

A. remove B. create C. make D. keep

Question 33. According to the passage, things made from plastic are bad for our environment because ______.

A. they are a danger to marine life such as whales, turtles and so on.

B. they are very convenient for people to use in different purposes.

C. people reuse plastic objects before recycling them.

D. plastics can exist for a long time without decomposing.

Question 34. According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE?

A. Plastic objects are useful for people without negative impacts.

B. Plastics and plastic objects can be thrown away to tidy the room.

C. Plastics and plastic objects can be recycled or reused.

D. Some kinds of plastics can be melted down, then released into the river.

Question 35. The word “They” in paragraph 2 refers to ______.

A. Plastics B. Things C. Rubbish dumps D. People

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the question.

Times are tough. The nightly news is filled with stories of people who have lost their jobs due to the economic crisis, or lost their homes in a fire or natural disaster. Have you ever seen people who have just endured an awful situation? Some focus on what they have lost, and this is easy to understand. But other people focus on what they did not lose, and they start thinking about a better future.

One good piece of advice to remember is that you cannot always control situations or other people. The only thing you can control is your own personal reaction to bad situations. Sometimes a situation may really be overwhelming. However, in many cases, you really can influence our own moods by the way you think about negative situations.

Imagine two families: Both have lost their homes and all their belongings in a devastating storm. One family cannot mask their grief. They feel that everything they hold dear has been destroyed. They cannot imagine how they will ever be able to replace things and start over again. Their normal life seems to have been completely lost. In contrast, a second family is crying with joy. All of the people in their family are unharmed and safe. This family is just happy that everyone has survived. This family is already trying to figure out how they can recover. You can’t really blame the first family for experiencing a very normal reaction to a terrible situation. However, the second family certainly seems to be better off. They are thinking about making progress rather than focusing on the tragic events. 

Though this scenario is extreme, everyone experiences setbacks that seem just awful at the time. This could be a job loss, illness, or problems with family members. Nobody gets through life without having some bad things happen. In these situations, try to focus on the steps you can take to remedy the situation, instead of how awful the setback is. By doing this, you will be laying the foundation for a better tomorrow. And you will not suffer as much pain today.

Actually, controlling how you feel and trying to maintain a positive attitude can help you through many tough situations. The bottom line is, no matter what the problem is, you are more likely to fix it if you can stay positive and work out a plan. Also, never be afraid to seek help when you need it. The advice of a friend, family member, or even a professional may be all it takes to get back on track. 

It may sound like a cliché. While a positive attitude may not be the answer to every problem, it can certainly give you an advantage in surviving most of life’s minor setbacks.

             (Adapted from “Select Readings – Upper Intermediate” by Linda Lee and Erik Gundersen)

Question 36. Which of the following could be the main idea of the passage?

A. Being optimistic is an effective way to get over bad situations.

B. Keeping positive or negative thoughts is the own choice of each person.

C. Positive thoughts are necessary conditions to be successful. 

D. There seems to have more pessimists than optimists. 

Question 37. The word “grief” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ________.

A. problem B. sorrow C. disappointment D. damage 

Question 38. What does the word “they” in paragraph 3 refer to?

A. tragic events B. all of the people C. the first family D. the second family 

Question 39. It can be inferred from the third paragraph that ________.

A. disappointment and sadness are all people’s common emotions in terrible situations.

B. your attitude in terrible situations is more important than how serious the problems are.

C. optimists often suffer less terrible situations than pessimists. 

D. your attitude will decide the way you react to terrible situations. 

Question 40. The word “scenario” in paragraph 4 mostly means ________.

A. trouble B. background C. circumstance D. imagination 

Question 41. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true?

A. The thing people have to remember is managing their own reaction to bad situations.

B. Everyone will suffer some terrible experiences in their life.

C. Paying attention to the solutions of the setback is better than focusing on the damage it causes. 

D. To have a good foundation for the future, you should not undergo bad situations today. 

Question 42. According to paragraph 5, what is the major thing you should do when you have troubles?

A. Be optimistic and make out a plan. B. Ask other people for help when necessary.

C. Control your emotions. D. Determine how serious the problem is. 

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 43. The number of homeless people in Nepal have increased sharply due to the recent severe earthquake. 

A. of B. have C. due to D. severe

Question 44. Barbara likes to spend time with her son by participating in his activities, like flying kites, playing video games and she watches his favorite movies.

A. likes to B. by participating C. like flying D. she watches

Question 45. The next step is deforestation, which involves growing forests in areas where there were none before.

A. deforestation B. growing C. where D. were

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 46. This is the most delicious cake I’ve ever tasted.

A. This is the least delicious cake I’ve never tasted.

B. I have never tasted any other cakes as delicious as this one.

C. I have never tasted any other delicious cake.

D. This is the first time I have tasted the delicious cake.

Question 47. “I’m sorry. I didn’t do the homework.” said the boy.

A. The boy admitted not doing the homework.

B. The boy said that he was sorry and he wouldn’t do the homework.

C. The boy denied not doing the homework.

D. The boy refused to do the homework.

Question 48. It is possible that one of the men died on the mountain.

A. One of the men must have died on the mountain.

B. One of the men could have died on the mountain.

C. One of the men should have died on the mountain.

D. One of the men may have died on the mountain.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 49. He was driving very fast because he didn't know the road was icy.

A. If he knew the road was icy, he wouldn't drive so fast.

B. He hadn't been driving very fast if he would have known the road was icy.

C. If he had known the road was icy, he wouldn't have been driving so fast.

D. He wasn't driving very fast if he would know the road was icy.

Question 50. He spent all his money. He even borrowed some from me.

A. As soon as he borrowed some money from me, he spent it all.

B. Hardly had he borrowed some money from me when he spent it all.

C. Not only did he spent all his money but also he borrowed some from me.

D. Not only did he spend all his money but he borrowed some from me as well.

ĐÁP ÁN – TEST 1

1. C	6. C	11. A	16. C	21. C	26. C	31. C	36. A	41. D	46. B
2. D	7. D	12. B	17. D	22. B	27. A	32. A	37. B	42. A	47. A
3. B	8. A	13. D	18. B	23. A	28. C	33. D	38. D	43. B	48. D
4. A	9. A	14. B	19. B	24. A	29. B	34. C	39. D	44. D	49. C
5. C	10. C	15. A	20. A	25. A	30. D	35. A	40. C	45. A	50. D

PRACTICE TEST 2

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1. A.misses                   B. hates                     C.teaches                 D.rises

Question 2. A. nation B. national C. nationality D. nationally

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3. A. dismiss B. destroy C. discount D. district

Question 4. A. solidarity B. effectively C. documentary D. dedication

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5. He'd hardly finished doing his homework when you arrived, _______?

A. didn't he B. had he C. would he D. hadn’t he

Question 6. The government is trying its best to narrow the gap between _______ rich and _______ poor.

A. the / a B. a / the C. the / the D. a / a

Question 7. The key _______ inventive success often requires being in the right place at the right time.

A. for B. of C. in D. to

Question 8. Mrs Townsend was left _______ all the arrangements for the outing by herself.

A. to make B. making C. having made D. to making

Question 9. Don’t forget to ring me up if _______ any changes in the timetable.

A. they are B. it will be C. there will be D. there are

Question 10. Acupuncture is part of traditional Chinese medicine and _______ in China for thousands of years.

A. has been used B. has using C. has used D. has been using

Question 11. Students can only use technological devices to complete their work _______ investment on notebooks and books.

A. rather than B. instead of C. but for D. in case

Question 12. He joined the army _______ from university.

A. after he had graduated B. while he was graduating

C. since he graduated D. before he graduated

Question 13. We should participate in Tree-Planting Campaigns _______ our city greener, fresher.

A. organizing to make B. organized making

C. organized to make D. which organize to make

 Question 14. An individual has not started living until he can rise above the narrow confines of his _______ concerns to the broader concerns of all humanity.

A. individual B. individualistic C. individualism D. individualize

Question 15. Jim’s _______ flu again. That’s the third time this year.

A. put up with B. gone down with C. led up to D. come up with

Question 16. _______ a cry whenever you have a feeling that you are in danger so that everyone could hear you and come to help immediately.

A. Send B. Give C. Make D. Lend

Question 17. Jimmy always takes the _______ by the horns at every chance in order to become a famous pop star, which is why he is so successful now.

A. bull B. horse C. cow D. buffalo

Question 18. Alex dreams of going on tour – he’s just waiting for his big _______ to get his foot in the door of the music industry.

A. deal B. break C. cake D. cheese

Question 19. His poor standard of play fully justifies his _______ from the team for the next match.

A. expulsion B. dismissal C. rejection D. exclusion 

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 20. We really appreciate your help, without which we couldn't have got our task done in time.

A. depreciate B. are proud of C. feel thankful for D. request

Question 21. Stop the degradation of the planet's natural environment and build a future in which humans live in harmony with nature.

A. coexist peacefully with B. fall in love with

C. agree with D. cooperate with

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22. The first year at university was probably the most challenging year of her life, which caused her plenty of troubles.

A. tricky B. tough C. difficult D. easy

Question 23. We have to work against the clock so as to meet the deadline of the clients tomorrow.

A. work in a haste B. work slowly

C. work as fast as possible D. work strenuously

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 24. Claudia is being interviewed by the manager of the company she's applied for.

- Manager: “_______.”

- Claudia: "I work hard and I enjoy working with other people."

A. Can you do jobs on your own? B. Would you describe yourself as ambitious?

C. What are some of your main strengths? D. Why have you applied for this position?

Question 25. Hana and Jenifer are talking about a book they have just read.

- Hana: “The book is really interesting and educational.” 

- Jenifer: “_______.”

A. Don’t mention it B. That’s nice of you to say so.

C. I’d love it. D. I couldn’t agree more.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each the numbered blanks.

Sir Isaac Newton, the English scientist and mathematician, was one of the most important figures of the 17th century scientific revolution. One of his greatest achievement was the (26) _______ of the three laws of motion, which are still used today. But he also had a very unusual personality. Some people would say he was actually insane. 

His father died before he was born, and his mother soon remarried. The young Isaac hated his stepfather so much that he once (27) _______ to burn his house down - when his stepfather and mother were still inside! Fortunately he did not, and he went on to graduate from Cambridge without being thrown into prison. 

Isaac's first published work was a theory of light and color. When another scientist wrote a paper criticizing this theory, Isaac flew into an uncontrollable rage. The scientist responsible for the criticism was a man called Robert Hooke. He was head of the Royal Society, and one of the most respected scientists in the country. (28) _______, this made no difference to Isaac, (29) _______ refused to speak to him for over a year. 

The simple fact was that Isaac found it impossible to have a calm discussion with anyone. As soon as someone said something that he disagreed with, he would lose his temper. For this reason he lived a large part of his life isolated from (30) _______ scientists. It is unlikely that many of them complained. 

                                                             (Source: https://www.biography.com/scientist/isaac-newton)

Question 26. A. discovery B. research C. findings D. inventions 

Question 27. A. shouted B. frightened C. threatened D. warned 

Question 28. A. Although B. However C. Despite D. What is more 

Question 29. A. who B.  that C. which D. whom 

Question 30. A. others B. the others C. another D. other

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the question.

Social workers are often the first people met by a person in need of human services. Social workers spend part of their day in an office setting or group residence and the rest of it going to people's homes.

Children welfare workers help children and teens in abusive situations. They investigate and report instances of neglect or abuse and take action if necessary to place children in foster homes.

Medical social workers help patients and their families when diseases such as AIDS or Alzheimer's cause suffering. They help a patient and his family to adjust to the new situation.

School social workers work within school systems to help children who have emotional problems. These students are often put into special education classrooms simply because they can’t control their behaviors. A school social worker works with the family of such a student to try to integrate him or her back into the general school population.

Industrial or occupational social workers work within a personnel department of a business to help employees cope with job pressures or personal problems that affect the quality of their work.

Gerontology social workers run support groups for the elderly. They also advise the elderly and their family members on the subjects of long-term housing and health care.

A bachelor's degree, and often a master's degree, is the minimum requirement for a professional position in social work. However, small agencies may accept some community college courses in psychology or sociology. In such places, you may find a position available as a record keeper or an aide to one of the social workers on the staff. Salaries usually start at $18,000.

                                                                            (Adapted from Basic IELTS reading by Zhang Juan)

Question 31. What is the passage mainly about?

A. Different types of social workers B. Roles of social workers in society

C. Responsibilities of a social worker D. How to become a social worker

Question 32. The phrase “adjust to” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.

A. fix B. arrange C. adapt to D. face up to

Question 33. The word “they” in paragraph 4 refers to _______.

A. children B. special education classrooms

C. school social workers D. these students

Question 34. Which of the following social workers deal with children’s emotional troubles?

A. gerontology social workers B. children welfare workers

C. school social workers D. medical social workers

Question 35. To become a professional social worker in big agencies, one needs at least _______.

A. a community college course in sociology B. a bachelor degree

C. a community college course in psychology D. a master’s degree

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the question.

The Trump campaign ran on bringing jobs back to American shores, although mechanization has been the biggest reason for manufacturing jobs’ disappearance. Similar losses have led to populist movements in several other countries. But instead of a pro-job growth future, economists across the board predict further losses as AI, robotics, and other technologies continue to be ushered in. What is up for debate is how quickly this is likely to occur.

 Now, an expert at the Wharton School of Business at the University of Pennsylvania is ringing the alarm bells. According to Art Bilger, venture capitalist and board member at the business school, all the developed nations on earth will see job loss rates of up to 47% within the next 25 years, according to a recent Oxford study. “No government is prepared,” The Economist reports. These include blue and white collar jobs. So far, the loss has been restricted to the blue collar variety, particularly in manufacturing.

To combat “structural unemployment” and the terrible blow, it is bound to deal the American people, Bilger has formed a nonprofit called Working Nation, whose mission it is to warn the public and to help make plans to safeguard them from this worrisome trend. Not only is the entire concept of employment about to change in a dramatic fashion, the trend is irreversible. The venture capitalist called on corporations, academia, government, and nonprofits to cooperate in modernizing our workforce.

To be clear, mechanization has always cost us jobs. The mechanical loom, for instance, put weavers out of business. But it also created jobs. Mechanics had to keep the machines going, machinists had to make parts for them, and workers had to attend to them, and so on. A lot of times those in one profession could pivot to another. At the beginning of the 20th century, for instance, automobiles were putting blacksmiths out of business. Who needed horseshoes anymore? But they soon became mechanics. And who was better suited?

Not so with this new trend. Unemployment today is significant in most developed nations and it’s only going to get worse. By 2034, just a few decades, mid-level jobs will be by and large obsolete. So far the benefits have only gone to the ultra-wealthy, the top 1%. This coming technological revolution is set to wipe out what looks to be the entire middle class. Not only will computers be able to perform tasks more cheaply than people, they’ll be more efficient too.

Accountants, doctors, lawyers, teachers, bureaucrats, and financial analysts beware: your jobs are not safe. According to The Economist, computers will be able to analyze and compare reams of data to make financial decisions or medical ones. There will be less of a chance of fraud or misdiagnosis, and the process will be more efficient. Not only are these folks in trouble, such a trend is likely to freeze salaries for those who remain employed, while income gaps only increase in size. You can imagine what this will do to politics and social stability.

                                                                                                               (Source: https://bigthink.com/)

Question 36. Which of the following could be the main idea of the passage?

A. Many jobs will disappear in the future.

B. AI will replace the workers’ positions in almost jobs.

C. Manufacturing jobs are predicted to be the first ones to disappear. 

D. Changing jobs is not a new trend in the future. 

Question 37. The word “irreversible” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.

A. impermanent B. remediable C. reparable D. unalterable 

Question 38. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true about jobs in the future?

A. AI, robots and technologies continuously used will put more labourers out of their jobs.

B. Every country has applied many policies to prepare for the massive loss of jobs in the next 25 years.

C. Many different organizations are called to cooperate in renovating the workforce. 

D. Working Nation is an organization founded to warn the public and make plans to save people from job loss. 

Question 39. According to paragraph 4, what is the advantage of mechanization?

A. Although mechanization drives people out of work, it also creates more jobs.

B. People can change their jobs to be more suitable with the society.

C. People will no longer need the useless like horseshoes. 

D. Workers will spend less time on manufacturing with the help of machines. 

Question 40. The word “obsolete” in paragraph 5 could be best replaced by _______.

A. outdated B. modern C. fashionable D. adventurous 

Question 41.  What does the word “they” in paragraph 5 refer to?

A. people B. tasks C. computers D. the entire middle class 

Question 42. Why does the author mention in the last paragraph that accountants, doctors, lawyers, teachers, bureaucrats, and financial analysts are not safe jobs?

A. Because they are easy to make mistakes or misdiagnosis in doing their jobs.

B. Because the salaries paid for these jobs may be frozen in the future.

C. Because computers are likely to analyze and process a great amount of data with high accuracy. 

D. Because these jobs directly influence politics and social stability.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 43. Volunteer work, understood in its traditional meaning, as unpaid activity oriented to help others and to improve society, have existed throughout the history of humanity.

A. its B. unpaid activity C. to improve D. have existed

Question 44. Many nations protect endangered species by forbidding hunting, to restrict land development and creating preserves.

A. protect B. by forbidding C. to restrict D. and creating

Question 45. It is said that these good life skills will make young people become more confidential.

A. is said B. these C. become D. confidential

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 46. As he gets older, he wants to travel less.

A. The more old age he gets, the less he wants to travel.

B. The less he wants to travel, the older he gets.

C. As soon as he wants to travel, he gets older.

D. The older he gets, the less he wants to travel.

Question 47. My friend told me, "If I were you, I would not ask him for help."

A. My friend advised me not to ask him for help.

B. My friend told me to ask him for help.

C. My friend prohibited me from asking him for help. 

D. My friend suggested not asking him for help.

Question 48. I don’t think Max broke your vase because he wasn’t here then.

A. Max wouldn’t have broken your vase because he wasn’t here then.

B. Max was likely to break your vase because he wasn’t here then.

C. Max can’t have broken your vase because he wasn’t here then. 

D. Max wasn’t able to break your vase because he wasn’t here then.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 49. As long as you stay calm, you have nothing to fear from the talk show.

A. You have remained calm for a long time in spite of your fear of the talk show.

B. Talk shows are only intimidating for people who are not extremely calm.

C. Provided that you do not get nervous, the talk show won't go badly for you. 

D. Even if you are afraid of the talk show, it is important not to express it.

Question 50. It was an interesting novel. I stayed up all night to finish it.

   A. I stayed up all night to finish the novel so it was interesting.

B. Unless it were an interesting novel, I would not stay up all night to finish it.

C. Though it was an interesting novel, I stayed up all night to finish it.

    D. So interesting was the novel that I stayed up all night to finish it.

ĐÁP ÁN - TEST 2

1. B	6. C	11. B	16. B	21. A	26. A	31. A	36. A	41. C	46. D
2. A	7. D	12. B	17. A	22. D	27. C	32. C	37. D	42. C	47. A
3. D	8. A	13. C	18. B	23. B	28. B	33. D	38. D	43. D	48. C
4. B	9. D	14. B	19. D	24. C	29. A	34. C	39. A	44. C	49. C
5. B	10. A	15. B	20. C	25. D	30. D	35. B	40. A	45. D	50. D

PRACTICE TEST 3 – 2021

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. 

Question 1: A. coughed B. linked C. used D. watched

Question 2: A. shout B. should C. ground D. count

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. 

Question 3: A. degree B. wildlife C. injure D. passage 

Question 4: A. salary B. memory C. interview D. pollutant 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 

Question 5: When the old man ______ past the park, he saw some children playing football 

A. has walked B. was walking C. walked D. is walking

Question 6: I have visited Portugal but I have never been to ______ Netherlands.  

A. a B. an C. the D. Ø (no article)

Question 7: I suggest that Peter ______ the directions carefully before assembling the bicycle. 

A. read B. reading C. reads D. to read 

Question 8: The temperature increases significantly, ______ makes the ice melt faster. 

A. when B. that C. what D. which 

Question 9: You can never rely ______ Anna to provide you with information. 

A. of B. for C. on D. to

Question 10: When my parents got to the airport, they realized that my mother ______ her passport at home. 

A. was leaving B. had left C. left D. has left

Question 11: The tabloids completely ______ that story about Bruce Willis. It's not true at all. 

A. took over B. looked up C. filled in D. made up

Question 12: Many students do not ______ full advantage of the Internet as they sometimes waste time on unsuitable webs. 

A. take B. make C. do D. give

Question 13: Traffic ______ is another big problem in the city whose road system is unable to cope with the increasing number of cars. 

A. rules B. congestion C. light D. troubles

Question 14: Some small farmers find it harder to ______ a living not just because of bad weather conditions, but because they can't compete with large agricultural companies. 

A. get B. do C. gain D. make

Question 15: He is ______ influenced by his father and grandfather. His behaviors and decisions are exactly the same.  

A. mightily B. strongly C. terribly D. weakly

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction. 

Question 16: It’s less expensive to buy a computer part by part; you can save a few hundred dollars all together.  

A. all together B. less C. part by part D. a few hundred

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 

Question 17: The speaker paused. He hesitated to answer the direct question raised by the audience. 

A. decided B. continued C. determined D. wavered

Question 18: Human beings are constantly contaminating their surrounding environment. Some places, for example, are too dirty to live in. 

A. promoting B. polluting C. destroying D. protecting

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word or phrase OPPOSITE in meaning to the bold and underlined part in each of the following questions. 

Question 19: This boy is poorly-educated and doesn't know how to behave properly. 

A. uneducated B. ignorant C. knowledgeable D. rude

Question 20: Robots have been widely used for repetitive work in the manufacturing process to reduce the cost of production. 

A. diminish B. decrease C. increase D. eliminate

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. 

Question 21. Albert and Bill are having dinner in Bill’s house. 

- Albert: "This dish is really nice!" 

- Bill:"________. It's called yakitori, and it's made with chicken livers." 

A. It's my pleasure B. Sure, I'll be glad to. 

C. I'm glad you like it. D. I guess you're right.

Question 22: Peter and Mary are talking about social networks. 

- Peter: “Using social networks may have negative effects on students.” 

- Mary: “____________. It distracts them from their studies.” 

A. I’m not sure about that B. I don’t quite agree 

C. You’re wrong D. That’s quite true 

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks. 

A POWERFUL INFLUENCE

  There can be no doubt at all that the Internet has made a huge difference to our lives. Parents are worried that children spend too much time playing on the Internet, hardly (23) _____ doing anything else in their spare time. Naturally, parents are curious to find out why the Internet is so attractive, and they want to know if it can be harmful for their children. Should parents worry if their children are spending that much time staring at their computers?  

  Obviously, if children are bent over their computers for hours, (24) ____ in some game, instead of doing their homework, then soothing is wrong. Parents and children could decide how much use the child should make of the Internet, and the child should give his or her (25) ____ that it won't interfere with homework. (26) _____ the child is not holding to this arrangement the parents can take more drastic steps. Dealing with a child's use of the Internet is not much different from negotiating any other sort of bargain about behavior.  

  Any parent (27) _____ is seriously alarmed about a child's behavior should make an appointment to discuss the matter with a teacher. Spending time in front of the screen does not necessarily affect a child's performance at school. Even if a child is absolutely crazy about using the Internet, he or she is probably just going through a phase, and in a few months there will be something else to worry about!  

Question 23. A. ever B. rarely C. never D. always  

Question 24. A. puzzled B. absorbed C. interested D. occupied  

Question 25. A. word B. promise C. vow D. claim  

Question 26. A. Why B. What C. If D. Although 

Question 27. A. which B. whom C. what D. who

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the answer to each of the questions.

  In 1900 the United States had only three cities with more than a million residents-New York, Chicago, and Philadelphia. By 1930, it had ten giant metropolises. The newer ones experienced remarkable growth, which reflected basic changes in the economy. The population of Los Angeles (114,000 in 1900) rose spectacularly in the early decades of the twentieth century, increasing a dramatic 1,400 percent from 1900 to 1930. 

  A number of circumstances contributed to the meteoric rise of Los Angeles. The agricultural potential of the area was enormous if water for irrigation could be found, and the city founders had the vision and dating to obtain it by constructing a 225-mile aqueduct, completed in 1913, to tap the water of the Owens River. The city had a superb natural harbor, as well as excellent rail connections. The climate made it possible to shoot motion pictures year-round; hence Hollywood. Hollywood not only supplied jobs; it disseminated an image of the good life in Southern California on screens all across the nation. The most important single industry powering the growth of Los Angeles, however, was directly linked to the automobile. The demand for petroleum to fuel gasoline engines led to the opening of the Southern California oil fields, and made Los Angeles North America's greatest refining center. Los Angeles was a product of the auto age in another sense as well: its distinctive spatial organization depended on widespread private ownership of automobiles. Los Angeles was a decentralized metropolis, sprawling across the desert landscape over an area of 400 square miles. 

It was a city without a real center. The downtown business district did not grow apace with the city as a whole, and the rapid transit system designed to link the center with outlying areas withered away from disuse. Approximately 800,000 cars were registered in Los Angeles County in 1930, one per 2.7 residents. Some visitors from the east coast were dismayed at the endless urban sprawl and dismissed Los Angeles as a mere collection of suburbs in search of a city. But the freedom and mobility of a city built on wheels attracted floods of migrants to the city. 

Question 28. What is the passage mainly about? 

A. The growth of cities in the United States in the early 1900's 

B. The development of the Southern California oil fields 

C. Factors contributing to the growth of Los Angeles 

D. Industry and city planning in Los Angeles

Question 29. The word"it" in paragraph 1 refers to ______. 

A. Chicago. B. New York C. the United States D. Philadelphia

Question 30. The author characterizes the growth of new large cities in the United States after 1900 as resulting primarily from ______. 

A. new economic conditions B. images of cities shown in movies 

C. new agricultural techniques D. a large migrant population

Question 31. The word "meteoric" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______. 

A. rapid B. famous C. controversial D. methodical

Question 32. It can be inferred from the passage that in 1930 the greatest number of people in the Los Angeles area were employed in 

A. farming B. oil refining 

C. automobile manufacturing D. the motion picture industry

Question 33. According to the passage, the Southern California oil fields were initially exploited due to______. 

A. the fuel requirements of Los Angeles' rail system 

B. an increase in the use of gasoline engines in North America 

C. a desire to put unproductive desert land to good use 

D. innovative planning on the part of the city founders

Question 34. It can be inferred from the passage that the spatial organization of Los Angeles contributed to the relative decline there of________. 

A. public transportation B. industrial areas 

C. suburban neighborhoods D. oil fields

Question 35. The visitors from the east coast mentioned in the passage thought that Los Angeles ______. 

A. was not accurately portrayed by Hollywood images. 

B. lacked good suburban areas in which to live. 

C. had an excessively large population. 

D. was not really a single city

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. 

Question 36: There was an upward trend in the demand for labor force. 

A. The demand for labor force declined.  

B. The demand for labor force increased.  

C. The demand for labor force reduced. 

D. The demand for labor force remained stable.

Question 37: Merry allows her children to stay up late on Saturday evenings. 

A. Merry makes her children stay up late on Saturday evenings.  

B. Merry gets her children to stay up late on Saturday evenings.  

C. Merry helps her children stay up late on Saturday evenings. 

D. Merry lets her children stay up late on Saturday evenings.

Question 38: It was the first time she had ever seen such a moving documentary. 

A. She had never seen a moving documentary before.  

B. She had seen such a moving documentary for a long time.  

C. She had never seen a more moving documentary than this before. 

D. The first time she saw such a moving documentary was a long time ago  

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. 

Question 39: Something hit the door. I heard a slam. 

A. Something hit the door but I heard a slam.  

B. Something hit the door when I heard a slam.  

C. Something hit the door though I heard a slam. 

D. Something hit the door for I heard a slam.

Question 40: He bought her flowers and diamond rings. This action made her fall in love with him. 

A. He bought her flowers and diamond rings, what made her fall in love with him.  

B. He bought her flowers and diamond rings, that made her fall in love with him.  

C. He bought her flowers and diamond rings, which made her fall in love with him. 

D. He bought her flowers and diamond rings which made her fall in love with him.

ĐÁP ÁN – TEST 3

1-C	2-B	3-A	4-D	5-B	6-C	7-A	8-D	9-C	10-B
11-D	12-A	13-B	14-D	15-B	16-A	17-D	18-B	19-C	20-C
21-C	22-D	23-A	24-B	25-A	26-C	27-D	28-C	29-C	30-A
31-A	32-B	33-B	34-A	35-D	36-B	37-D	38-C	39-D	40-C

PRACTICE TEST 4 – 2021

Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in each of the following question. 

Question 1: A. stagnant B. expand C. vacancy D. Applicant 

Question 2: A. delivers B. reminds  C. depends  D. Completes 

Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following question. 

Question 3: A. ambitious B. dominant C. combustion D. achievement 

Question 4: A. willing B. sector  C. desert  D. diverse 

Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 

Question 5: Would you kindly inform me who is responsible __________.the travel arrangements? 

A. on  B. to  C. in  D. For 

Question 6: I ________ a bike to school every day but today I _______ to school by bus because it was stolen yesterday. 

A. ride - go  B. rode - went  C. is riding - am going D. ride - am going 

Question 7: According to the conditions of my scholarship, after finishing my degree, ________.

A. the university will employ me 

B. I will be employed by the university 

C. employment will be given to me by the university 

D. my education will be employed by the university 

Question 8: If you ___________ Mary by chance, please give her my phone number. 

A. met  B. could meet C. should meet D. will meet 

Question 9: His poor standard of play fully justifies his __________ from the team for the next match. 

A. expulsion  B. dismissal  C. exclusion  D. rejection 

Question 10: They had a global _________ hit with their album concept about “The dark side of the Moon". 

A. popular  B. top  C. song  D. smash 

Question 11: None of the people ________ could come. 

A. who invited to the party  B. was invited to the party 

C. were invited to the party  D. invited to the party 

Question 12: John has been working as a journalist since he _________ from university in 2000. 

A. graduate  B. had graduated C. will be graduate D. Graduated 

Question 13: Faraday made many ________ in the field of physics and chemistry. 

A. discoveries B. discovering C. discover  D. discovered 

Question 14: He left on ___________ 10 o'clock train yesterday to see his father who was taken to _______ hospital last week when he broke his right leg. 

A. the - a  B. the - Ø  C. a - a  D. the – the 

Question 15: If my time-management skills had been better, I _______ from serious stress when I was in university. 

A. will not suffer B. hadn't suffered

C. wouldn't suffer D. wouldn't have suffered 

Question 16: "Jenny's always wanted to get to the top of her career, _______?”- “Yes, she's an ambitious girl”. 

A. isn't she  B. has she  C. hasn't she  D. hasn't her 

Question 17: My neighbor offered ________ us to the airport. 

A. taking  B. to taking  C. take  D. to take 

Question 18: People are advised to ________ smoking because of its harm to their health. 

A. cut down  B. cut down on C. cut in  D. cut off 

Question 19: It won't be safe to use these stairs ________

A. until they have them repaired  B. before they repair them 

C. after they will repair them  D. when they repaired them 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 

Question 20: Chauvet Jeans was a well-known nineteen century painter whose paintings are extraordinarily sophisticated. 

A. old-fashioned B. complex  C. primitive  D. basic 

Question 21: Whenever problems come up, we discuss them frankly and find solutions quickly. 

A. unselfishly  B. loyally  C. honestly  D. constantly 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 

Question 22: Passing this important English test was such a boost to my confidence. 

A. untruth  B. inefficiency  C. disability  D. uncertainty 

Question 23: It is believed that in ten years' time AIDS will also be brought under control. 

A. out of practice B. out of order C. out of hand  D. out of 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best complete each of the following exchanges. 

Question 24: A: What a wonderful party! B: 

A. I am happy you like it.  B. Same to you. Thanks! 

C. I don't know. Let me check.  D. I am fine. Thank you! 

Question 25: "Hello, I'd like to speak to Mr. Green, please." "____________”

A. Sure, I'll put you through.  B. I'm afraid I don't know. 

C. I'm sorry. I'll call again later.  D. Sorry. Can you take a message? 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. 

Question 26: Because of (A) severe asthma attacks, (B) the doctor suggested (C) his patient to stop (D) smoking. 

Question 27: Last month, while my friend was traveling (A) round England by the (B) car, he crashed the (C) car into a (D) tree. 

Question 28: Urban development (A) ean magnify the risk of (B) environmental hazards for example (C) flash flooding (D) 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. 

Question 29: We might stop here if you don't change your way of speaking. 

A. We might stop here if you change your way of speaking. 

B. We might stop here if not you change your way of speaking. 

C. We might stop here unless you change your way of speaking. 

D. We might stop here unless you don't change your way of speaking. 

Question 30: At no time Jane asks me when she uses my bathroom. 

A. Jane is always using my bathroom without asking! 

B. Sometimes Jane asks me when she uses my bathroom. 

C. Jane has no time to ask me when she uses my bathroom. 

D. It is very unusual for Jane to ask me when she uses my bathroom. 

Question 31: There was a 5% drop in the student enrollment of the university. 

A. The student enrollment of the university dropped by 5%. 

B. The student enrollment of the university dropped in 5%. 

C. The student enrollment of the university dropped to 5%. 

D. The student enrollment of the university dropped for 5%. 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. 

Question 32: Something hit the door. I heard a slam. 

A. Something hit the door though I heard a slam. 

B. Something hit the door for I heard a slam. 

C. Something hit the door when I heard a slam. 

D. Something hit the door but I heard a slam. 

Question 33: Disabled people can contribute to our community. Non-disabled people can also contribute to our community. 

A. Only disabled people not non-disabled ones can contribute to our community. 

B. Neither disabled people nor non-disabled ones can contribute to our community. 

C. Both disabled people and non-disabled ones can contribute to our community. 

D. Either disabled people or non-disabled ones can contribute to our community. 

Reading the following passage and mark the letter on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word that best fits each of the numbered blank from 34 to 38 

Le Bijou, a high-end Swiss hospitality company, has recently launched a new package for guests in _______ (34) to the coronavirus outbreak and the country's lockdown. Guests looking to practice social _______ (35), which basically means staying far enough away from others to prevent person to-person transmission of the coronavirus or any other virus for that _______ (36), can do so in Le Bijou’s hotel-like apartments, which rely on modern technology for most of its operations. "You don't need to interact with anyone you don't want to," says Alexander Hübner, CEO and co-founder of Le Bijou. Additionally, Le Bijou also ______ (37) on-site coronavirus testing to those who can afford _________ (38) it still remains unclear how many tests they have or how long Le Bijou could run the Covid-19 package. 

Question 34: A. concern B. response  C. regard  D. account 

Question 35: A. detachment B. withdrawal C. distancing D. dissociation 

Question 36: A. regard  B. issue  C. aspect  D. matter 

Question 37: A. displays B. advises  C. offers  D. proposes 

Question 38: A. so  B. but  C. or  D. for 

Read the following text and circle the best answer among A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet for the questions from 39 to 43 

As the pace of life continues to increase, we are fast losing the art of relaxation. Once you are in the habit of rushing through life, being on the go from morning to night, it is hard to slow down. But relaxation is essential for a healthy mind and body. 

Stress is a natural part of every life and there is no way to avoid it. In fact, it is not the bad thing it is often supposed to be. A certain amount of stress is vital to provide motivation and give purpose to life. It is only when the stress gets out of control that it can lead to poor performance and ill health. 

The amount of stress a person can withstand depends very much on the individual. Some people are not afraid of stress, and such characters are obviously prime material for managerial responsibilities. Others lose heart at the first signs of unusual difficulties. When exposed to stress in whatever form, we react both chemically and physically. In fact we make choice between "fight" or "flight", and in more primitive days the choice made the difference between life or death. The crises we meet today are not likely to be so extreme, but however little the stress, it involves the same response. It is when such a reaction lasts long, through continued exposure to stress that health becomes endangered. Such serious conditions as high blood pressure and heart disease have established links with stress. Since we cannot remove stress from our lives (and it would be unwise to do so even if we could), we need to find ways to deal with it. 

Question 39: People are finding less and less time for relaxing themselves because_ 

A. they do not know how to enjoy themselves 

B. they are becoming busier their work 

C. they are travelling fast all the time 

D. they do not believe that relaxation is important for health 

Question 40: According to the writer, the most important character for a good manager is his ________.

A. not fearing stress  B. high sense of responsibility 

C. knowing the art of relaxation  D. having control over performance 

Question 41: Which of the following statements is true? 

A. Stress is always harmful to people 

B. Different people can withstand different amount of stress 

C. It's easy to change the habit of keeping oneself busy with work 

D. We can find some ways to avoid stress 

Question 42: In paragraph 3. "such a reaction" refers back to _________

A. losing heart at die signs of difficulties B. making a choice between "fight" or "flight" 

C. responding to crises quickly  D. reaction to stress both chemically and physically 

Question 43: In the last sentence of the passage, "do so" refers to ________.

A. find ways to deal with stress  B. establish links between diseases and stress 

C. expose ourselves to stress  D. remove stress from our lives 

Read the following text and circle the best answer among A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet for the questions from 44 to 50 

Buying a house is the single largest financial investment an individual makes. Yet, in India this act is fraught with risk and individuals depend on weak laws for justice. Occasionally, deviant promoters are called to account as was the case in the detention of Unitech's promoters. This incident shows up the fallout of an absence of proper regulation to cover contracts between buyers and real estate promoters. A real estate bill, which is presently pending in Rajya Sabha, seeks to fill this gap. It has been debated for over two years and should be passed by Parliament in the budget session. 

India is in the midst of rapid urbanization and urban population is expected to more than double to about 900 million over the next three decades. Unfortunately, even the current population does not have adequate housing. A government estimate in 2012 put the shortage at nearly 19 million units. If this shortage is to be alleviated quickly, India's messy real estate sector needs reforms. 

The real estate bill seeks to set standards for contracts between buyers and sellers. Transparency, a rare commodity in real estate, is enforced as promoters have to upload project details on the regulators' website. Importantly, standard definitions of terms mean that buyers will not feel cheated after taking possession of a house. In order to protect buyers who pay upfront, a part of the money collected for a real estate project is ring-fenced in a separate bank account. Also, given India on land titles, the real estate bill provides title insurance. This bill has been scrutinized by two parliamentary committees and its passage now brooks no delay. 

This bill is an important step in cleaning up the real estate market, but the journey should not end with it. State government play a significant role in real estate and they are often the source of problems. Some estimates suggest that real estate developers have to seek approvals of as many as 40 central and state departments, which lead to delays and an escalation in the cost of houses. Sensibly, NDA government's project to provide universal urban housing forces states to institute reforms to access central funding. Without real estate reforms at the level of states, it will not be possible to meet the ambition of making housing accessible for all urban dwellers. 

Question 44: The word alleviated in the second paragraph is OPPOSITE in meaning to __________.

A. deaden  B. aggravated  C. diminished  D. relieved 

Question 45: It can be inferred from the passage that _______.

A. the real estate bill does not provide title insurance 

B. buying house is not a single largest individual investment 

C. in India, no one depends on laws for justice 

D. urbanization in India has increased rapidly 

Question 46: According to the passage, which of the following is the pending in Rajya Sabha? 

A. Universal urban housing programme  B. Universal rural housing programme 

C. Real estate bill  D. NDA government's new scheme 

Question 47: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage? 

A. Real state bill has been scrutinized by two parliamentary committees. 

B. Urban population is expected to more than double to about 850 million over the next three decades. 

C. Current population does not have adequate housing in India. 

D. India's real estate sector needs reforms. 

Question 48: It is impossible to meet the ambition of making housing accessible for urban dwellers ________.

A. without real estate reforms at the level of states B. with real estate reforms at state level 

C. without support of central government D. without passing the bill in Rajya Sabha 

Question 49: The word escalation in the forth paragraph refers to __________.

A. reduction  B. sustainability  C. growth  D. decrease 

Question 50: According to the passage, what is the source of problem in real estate? 

A. State governments B. Market money makers C. Central governments D. Buyers and sellers 

ĐÁP ÁN – TEST 4

1-C	2-D	3-B	4-D	5-D	6-D	7-B	8-C	9-C	10-D
11-D	12-D	13-A	14-B	15-D	16-C	17-D	18-B	19-A	20-B
21-C	22-D	23-C	24-A	25-A	26-D	27-B	28-C	29-C	30-A
31-A	32-B	33-C	34-B	35-C	36-D	37-C	38-B	39-B	40-A
41-B	42-D	43-D	44-B	45-D	46-C	47-B	48-A	49-C	50-A

PRACTICE TEST 5

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1. A. passed B. realized C. touched D. wished

Question 2. A. academic B. apply C. apology D. achieve

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3. A. deploy          B. maintain          C. border          D. attain

Question 4. A. benefit B. pesticide C. cinema D. aquatic

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5. It seems that you are responsible for that mistake, _______?

A. aren’t you B. are you C. isn’t it D. is it

Question 6. Visitors to the local museum are mostly attracted by _______ rocking chair. 

A. an old wooden European beautiful           B. a beautiful old European wooden 

C. an old beautiful wooden European           D. a wooden old beautiful European

Question 7. Doctors advise people who are deficient _______Vitamin C to eat more fruit and vegetables.

A. in B. of C. from D. for

Question 8. Some must have taken my keys. I clearly remember _______them by the window and now they are nowhere to be seen.

A. to be leaving B. to have left C. to leave D. leaving

Question 9. _______that Columbus discovered America.

A. It was in 1492 B. There was in 1492 C. In 1492 D. That was in 1492

Question 10. He_______a terrible accident while he_______along Ben Luc Bridge.

A. see - am walking B. saw - was walking

C. was seeing - walked D. have seen - were walking

Question 11. A new study by University College London shows that teenager girls are twice as likely as to be depressed _______ social media as boys.

A. as a result B. thanks to C. despite D. due to 

Question 12. The customs officers stopped the suspected man and ordered him to show_______. 

A. what was he carrying in his bag.          B. what he was carrying in his bag 

C. what he carries in his bag          D. what does he carry in his bag

Question 13. Most office furniture is bought more on the basis of_______ than comfort.

A. afford B. affording C. afforded D. affordability

Question 14. The old woman still recalls clearly_______ by her teacher when she was late on her first day at school.

A. to be criticized B. to have criticized C. being criticized D. criticizing

Question 15. I’ve just been offered a new job! Things are _______.

A. clearing up B. making up C. looking up D. turning up

Question 16. The company's advertising campaign was a _______ failure - it didn't attract a single new customer.

A. miraculous B. spectacular C. wonderful D. unprecedented

Question 17. Mr John is held in high _______ for his dedication to the school.

A. respect B. esteem C. homage D. honor

Question 18. The scientists are encountering the difficulties of _______ of radioactive waste.

A.depleting B. preserving C. eliminating D. disposing

Question 19. It’s normal for small businesses to operate at a _______ for the first couple of years before they start to break even.

A. loss B. failure C. luck D. loose

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 20. I am now reconciled with two of my estranged siblings - not just my older brother, but my sister, whom I hadn't spoken to for 17 years.

A. contactable B. harmonized C. opposed D. truthful 

Question 21. He sank into deep despair when he lost his job.

A. became very enjoyable B. became very unhappy

C. was delighted D. burst into tears

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22. It is undeniable that instrument innovations hit the right note in 2013 with the 3D-printed guitar, the AT-200 guitar, the seaboard grand and the wheel harp.

A. growth B. modernization C. revolution D. stagnation

Question 23. Teenagers can become addicted to social networking if they can't control they spend online.

A. dependent on B. hooked on C. indifferent to D. exhausted by

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 24. Ella is asking Eric about self-study.

- Ella: “Do you think people with self-education can succeed nowadays?”

- Eric: “_______ because they tend to be very independent and self-disciplined.”

A. I’m not so sure about that B. That’s what I was thinking

C. It’s out of the question D. I don’t think it’s right

Question 25. Mai and Huong are at the the café. They are chatting about a healthy diet.

- Mai: “Do you know an apple a day can help you keep fit, build healthy bones and prevent disease like cancer?”

- Huong: “Wow! _______.”

A. I would love to B. It's a good idea C. That's incredible D. You must like apple

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each the numbered blanks.

At present, single-parent families ought to be of great focus, be recognized and supported as they are a growing family form and should not be an afterthought in family, economic and labor market policies. Single parent families should be (26) _______ considered and addressed in all family policy discussions and decisions. (27) _______, home-care cash allowances, which are paid to a parent who abstains from employment to take care for her child at home, can have significant consequences encouraging lower levels of female employment among single-parent families, (28) _______ in turn results in higher childhood poverty. In this regard, work-life balance policies and workplace practices also need to (29) _______ account of a single-parent perspective, for example, the impact of non-standard work hours when childcare is not available.

The provision of educational and skill-building opportunities and affordable quality day care become even more urgent in families with single parents. Such families should have a higher priority and subsidized access to childcare facilities. Governmental agencies should be established (30) _______ child support payment from non-resident parents in case of conflicts, disagreements or delayed payments, e.g., after a divorce or separation.

                                                                                 (Adapted from http://www.socialtrendsinstitute.org/)

Question 26. A. implicitly B. clearly C. indirectly D. completely 

Question 27. A. For instance B. However C. Moreover D. Therefore 

Question 28. A. who B. whose C. which D. that 

Question 29. A. have B. do C. put D. take

Question 30. A. to facilitate B. facilitating C. facilitated D. facilitate

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the question.

One way of training for your future occupation in Germany is by pursuing a dual vocational training programme. Such programmes offer plenty of opportunity for on-the-job training and work experience. Programmes usually last between two and three and a half years and comprise theoretical as well as practical elements. You will spend one or two days a week, or several weeks at once, at a vocational school where you will acquire the theoretical knowledge that you will need in your future occupation. The rest of the time will be spent at a company. There you get to apply your newly acquired knowledge in practice, for example by learning to operate machinery. You will get to know what your company does, learn how it operates and find out if you can see yourself working there after completing your training.

This combination of theory and practice gives you a real head start into your job: by the time you have completed your training, you will not only have the required technical knowledge, but you will also have hands-on experience in your job. There are around 350 officially recognised training programmes in Germany, so chances are good that one of them will suit your interests and talents. You can find out which one that might be by visiting one of the jobs and vocational training fairs which are organised in many German cities at different times in the year.

Employment prospects for students who have completed a dual vocational training programme are very good. This is one of the reasons why this kind of training is very popular with young Germans: around two thirds of all students leaving school go on to start a vocational training programme.

                                                                              (Source: http ://www. make-it-in-germany. com)

Question 31. How many German school leavers choose this vocational training programme?

A.around one out of five B. about 70%

C. less than a third D. well over 75%

Question 32. The word “it” in the first paragraph refers to _______.

A. organisation  B. machinery  C. knowledge D. company

Question 33. Which of the following statements best describes the dual vocational training programmes?

A. These programmes provide you with both theoretical knowledge and practical working experience. B. These programmes consist of an intensive theoretical course of two and a half years at a vocational 

          school.

C. These programmes require you to have only practical working time at a certain company.

D. These programmes offer you some necessary technical skills to do your future job.

Question 34. The word “hands-on” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to _______.

A. practical  B. technical  C. theoretical  D. integral  

Question 35. Which of the following is probably the best title of the passage?

A. Employment Opportunities and Prospects in Germany

B. Dual Vocational Training System in Germany

C. Combination of Theory and Practice in Studying in Germany

D. Higher Education System in Germany

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the question.

Though gambling is typically associated with casino games, strategic sport betting is rapidly gaining in popularity – and that's a whole other ball game, Prof. Dannon explains. "Sports gamblers seem to believe themselves the cleverest of all gamblers. They think that with experience and knowledge – such as player's statistics, manager's habits, weather conditions, and stadium capacity – they can predict the outcome of a game better than the average person."

But in a study published in the journal Psychopathology, Prof. Dannon and Dr. Ronen Huberfeld of the Beer Yaakov Mental Health Center determined that neither betting experience nor knowledge of the arcane details of the game is connected to successful betting outcomes. Indeed, he says, the two most successful gamblers in their study had no prior experience in gambling or knowledge of the sport in question. This should inform how psychologists approach sports gamblers, who need to be treated using different methods than their casino-addicted counterparts. For their study, the researchers focused on the field of soccer betting, one of the most popular and growing forms of sports gambling. They recruited three groups of participants, including 53 professional sports gamblers, 34 soccer fans who were knowledgeable about the sport but had never gambled, and finally, 78 non-gamblers with no prior knowledge of soccer at all. All participants were asked to place bets on the final scores of the 16 second-round matches of the Champion's League, organized by the Union of European Football Associations. This model mimics how gamblers actually put their money on the games, where they need to bet on exact scores to win.

Although those who had prior knowledge of soccer were expected to have a higher success rate, the researchers discovered that, in fact, their success rate was no better than those of the other two groups. Interestingly, the two participants with the most successful record, correctly betting on seven out of the 16 games each, hailed from the group with no prior understanding of the sport.

This doesn't indicate that there is an advantage to inexperience, says Prof. Dannon – many others in the third group were unable to predict any of the results correctly. But the outcome exposes the myth of knowledge as a powerful betting advantage. The sense of control that encourages sports gamblers in their betting is just an illusion.

                                                                                                (Source: https://www.sciencedaily.com/)

Question 36. Which best serves as the title for the passage?

A. No predictor of success. B. The future of sport gambling

C. Regret is a gambler’s curse. D. How to top in elite sports? 

Question 37. The word “strategic” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.

A. tactical B. critical C. random D. sensible 

Question 38. According to paragraph 2, what element can help sport gamblers win their bet?

A. Real-time digital wagering has created betting opportunities that don’t rely on the score.

B. Their inexperience coupling with ignorance could easily bring a lucky or miraculous result.

C. The trick is that the prediction made on first hunch is always better than the second thought. 

D. There is no actual connection between winning a bet and any concrete betting pattern. 

Question 39. The word “they” in paragraph refers to _______.

A. fans B. gamblers C. scores D. games 

Question 40. The word “hailed” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to _______.

A. honored B. saluted C. come D. approached 

Question 41. Which of the following statements is TRUE, according to the passage?

A. Two of the most thriving sports bettors use dumb luck to triumph over years of experience.

B. Sports gamblers operate under an illusion of control and power unrelated to real-life outcomes.

C. Christmas Eve is the most popular day for people to place a bet, for many religious reasons. 

D. People with no background knowledge of the game always do better than veteran ones. 

Question 42. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

A. Legalization of sports gambling could lead to increased sports viewing.

B. The total value of the sports betting market is hard to estimate due to the lack of consistency.

C. For decades, sports gambling tended to be a static and underhanded experience. 

D. Knowledge of the game cannot serve as a decisive advantage in sports gambling.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 43. I wish you won't come through the kitchen with your dirty boots on.

A. won't come B. the kitchen C. dirty boots D. on

Question 44. Viet Nam was the first lndochinese country joining ASEAN, and its move helped end confrontation between the lndochinese party and ASEAN.

A. was B. joining C. confrontation D. its move

Question 45. Sparking pools of water lay trapped among the rocks as the tide retreated.

A. Sparking B. lay trapped C. as D. retreated

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 46. The problem was so complicated that the students couldn’t understand it.

A. It was such complicated problem that the students couldn’t understand.

B. The problem wasn’t simple enough for the students to understand it.

C. The problem was too complicated for the students to understand.

D. It was so complicated problems that the students couldn’t understand

Question 47. It is pointless to ask me about it because I know nothing.

A. It's no use asking me about it because I know nothing.

B. It's no use to ask me about it because I know nothing.

C. It's not use asking me about it because I know nothing. 

D. It's not use to ask me about it because I know nothing.

Question 48. It was wrong of you not to show any concern for her mom's health.

A. You should show concern for her mom's health.

B. You should have shown concern for her mom's health.

C. It was wrong that you showed concern for her mom's health. 

D. You shouldn't have shown any concern for her mom's health.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 49. Most scientists know him well. However, very few ordinary people have heard of him.

A. Not only scientists but also the general public know him as a big name.

B. Although he is well known to scientists, he is little known to the general public.

C. Many ordinary people know him better than most scientists do.

D. He is the only scientist that is not known to the general public.

Question 50. As soon as James started working, he realized that his decision had not been a good one.

A. Just before James took up his new post, he realized that he was not suited for it.

B. No sooner had James begun his new job than he knew his decision was wrong.

C. Had James not begun his new job, he would have gone looking for a better one. 

D. Since James did not like his new job, he began looking for a better one.

THE END

ĐÁP ÁN - TEST 5

1. B	6. B	11. D	16. B	21. B	26. B	31. B	36. A	41. B	46. C
2. A	7. A	12. B	17. B	22. D	27. A	32. D	37. A	42. D	47. A
3. C	8. D	13. D	18. D	23. C	28. C	33. A	38. D	43. A	48. B
4. D	9. A	14. C	19. A	24. B	29. D	34. A	39. B	44. B	49. C
5. A	10. B	15. C	20. B	25. C	30. A	35. B	40. C	45. D	50. B

PRACTICE TEST 6

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1. A. attracts B. delays C. believes D. begins

Question 2. A. character B. aching C. chamber D. orchestra

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3. A. behave B. enter C. allow D. relax

Question 4. A. infectious B. privacy C. principle D. charity

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5. The boy denied _______ the cake even though there was some cream left on his chin.

A. to eating B. eating C. to eat D. eat

Question 6. In Japan, _______ most important holiday of _______ season is New Year’s Day, which comes one week after Christmas.

A. the-the B. ∅ – the C. the – ∅ D. the - a

Question 7. Simon was so absorbed _______ his book that he didn’t even notice me come in.

A. in B. to C. with D. of

Question 8. _______ for about 4 weeks, we now can perform most of the tasks confidently.

A. Being trained B. Training C. Having trained D. Having been trained

Question 9. If the primary candidates _______ more on the issue, the results of the election would have been quite different.

A. have focused B. had focused C. focused D. were focused

Question 10. Before they came to the party, Jane _______ all the things needed.

A. had prepared B. prepared C. was preparing D. has prepared

Question 11. The proposals he put forward were excellent. _______, it quickly became apparent that they would work when put into practice.

A. Moreover B. However C. Nevertheless D. Although

Question 12. The teacher was explaining the lesson slowly and clearly _______.

A. in order that his students can understand it B. in order to his students understand it

C. so as to that his students could understand it D. so that his students could understand it

Question 13. It was such a/an _______ book about environmental problems.

A. weather-beaten B. thought-provoking C. absent-minded D. ill-behaved

 Question 14. They were so _______ about joining the local volunteer group that they couldn’t sleep last night.

A. excite B. excitement C. exciting D. excited 

Question 15. You shouldn’t lose heart; success often comes to those who are not _______ by failures

A. put off B. turned on C. left out D. switched off

Question 16. A lot of generous businessmen have _______ valuable contributions to helping needy people.

A. done B. taken C. made D. given

Question 17. I was left out in the _______ in the annual promotions in the company. 

A. rain B. sun C. snow D. cold 

Question 18. When I told my family I wanted to be a professional musician, I faced a _______ of criticism from my parents, who strongly disapproved of the idea.

A. barrage B. barricade C. blast D. attack

Question 19. The director informed that no candidate _______ all the criteria for the administrative position.

A. completed B. fulfilled C. achieved D. suited

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 20. We have achieved considerable results in the economic field, such as high economic growth, stability and significant poverty alleviation over the past few years.

A. achievement B. development C. prevention D. reduction 

Question 21. I'm all in favor of ambition but I think when he says he'll be a millionaire by the time he's 25, he's simply crying for the moon. 

A. longing for what is beyond the reach B. asking for what is attainable

C. doing something with vigor or intensity D. crying a lot and for a long time

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22. People nationwide have acted without hesitation to provide aids for the victims in the disaster-stricken areas.

A. awareness B. uncertainty C. reluctance D. willingness

Question 23. With price increases on most necessities, many people have to tighten their belt for fear of getting into financial difficulties.

A. spend money freely B. save on daily expenses

C. dress in loose clothes D. put on tighter belts

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 24. Mary invited her friend, Sarah, to have dinner out that night and Sarah accepted.

- Mary: “Shall we eat out tonight?”                               - Sarah: “_______.”

A. That’s a great idea B. That’s acceptable

C. You are welcome D. It’s kind of you to invite

Question 25. Silas is talking to his roommate, Salah, about the Olympic Games.

- Silas: “Do you think our country can host the Olympic Games some day in the future?”

- Salah: “_______. We can’t afford such a big event.”

A. No, I don’t think so B. You can say that again

C. I can’t agree with your more D. Yes, you’re right

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each the numbered blanks.

A scientist said robots will be more intelligent than humans by 2029. The scientist's name is Ray Kurzweil. He works for Google as Director of Engineering. He is one of the world’s leading experts on (26) _______ intelligence (A.I). Mr Kurzweil believes computers will be able to learn from experiences, just like humans. He also thinks they will be able to tell jokes and stories, and even flirt. Kurzweil‘s 2029 prediction is a lot sooner than many people thought. The scientist said that in 1999, many A.I. experts said it would be hundreds of years (27) _______ a computer was more intelligent than a human. He said that it would not be long before computer (28) _______ is one billion times more powerful than the human brain.

Mr Kurzweil joked that many years ago, people thought he was a little crazy for predicting computers would be as intelligent as humans. His thinking has stayed the same but everyone else has changed the way they think. He said: “My views are not radical any more. I've actually stayed (29) _______. It's the rest of the world that's changing its View.” He highlighted examples of high-tech things we use, see or read about every day. These things make us believe that computers have intelligence. He said people think differently now: "Because the public has seen things like Siri (the iPhone’s voice-recognition technology) (30) _______ you talk to a computer, they've seen the Google self-driving cars."

                                                                                         (Source: https://breakingnewsenglish.com)

Question 26. A. artificial B. false C. handmade D. fake 

Question 27. A. while B. after C. then D. before 

Question 28. A. intelligent B. intelligently C. intelligence D. intelligences 

Question 29. A. consistent B. insistent C. persistent D. resistant 

Question 30. A. which B. where C. whom D. what

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the question.

Some doctors think that you should drink a glass of water each morning. You should drink this water first thing, before doing anything else. The temperature of the water should be similar to body temperature; neither too hot nor too cold. 

Why should you drink this water? Water helps your body in many ways. It helps clean out your kidneys. It prepares your stomach for digestion. Water can also help your intestines work better. After drinking water, the intestines can more easily take out nutrients from our food. Water also helps us go to the bathroom more easily.

Scientists suggest that people take in 1,600 milliliters of water each day. But don’t drink all of that water in one sitting. If you do, your kidneys will have to work much harder to eliminate it. It’s better to drink some in the morning and some in the afternoon. Some people think it’s better to drink between meals and not during meals. They think water dilutes the juices produced in our stomachs. This can interfere with normal digestion. 

Are you drinking enough water every day? Check the color of your urine. If it is light yellow, you are probably drinking enough. If your urine is very dark yellow, you probably need to drink more water. A little more water each day could make you much healthier.

                                    (Adapted from Reading Challenge 1 by Casey Malarcher and Andrea Janzen)

Question 31. What is the main idea of the passage?

A. The importance of water B. The advice of the doctors

C. How to drink water correctly? D. The best amount of water to drink 

Question 32. According to the passage, water is good for the following organs of the body, EXCEPT _______.

A. kidneys B. stomach C. intestines D. livers 

Question 33. The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to _______.

A. your body B. your kidney C. water D. your stomach 

Question 34. The word “eliminate” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.

A. preserve B. remove C. absorb D. process 

Question 35. Which of the following is NOT true?

A. The first thing you should do every morning is to drink water.

B. You shouldn’t drink too much water at the same time.

C. Drinking water while having meals may interfere with normal digestion. 

D. You need to drink more water if your urine is light yellow.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the question.

While watching sports on TV, the chances are children will see professional players cheating, having tantrums, fighting, or abusing officials. In addition, it’s highly likely that children will be aware of well-known cases of sportspeople being caught using drugs to improve their performance. The danger of all this is that it could give children the idea that winning is all that counts and you should win at all costs. Good behavior and fair play aren’t the message that comes across. Instead, it looks as if cheating and bad behavior are reasonable ways of getting what you want. This message is further bolstered by the fact that some of these sportspeople acquire enormous fame and wealth, making it seem they are being handsomely rewarded either despite or because of their bad behavior.

What can parents do about this? They can regard sport on television as an opportunity to discuss attitudes and behavior with their children. When watching sports together, if parents see a player swearing at the referee, they can get the child’s opinion on that behavior and discuss whether a player’s skill is more important than their behavior. Ask what the child thinks the player’s contribution to the team is. Point out that no player can win a team game on their own, so it’s important for members to work well together.

Another thing to focus on is what the commentators say. Do they frown on bad behavior from players, think it’s amusing or even consider it’s a good thing? What about the officials? If they let players get away with a clear foul, parents can discuss with children whether this is right and what effect it has on the game. Look too at the reactions of coaches and managers. Do they accept losing with good grace or scowl and show a bad attitude? Parents can use this to talk about attitudes to winning and losing and to remind children that both are part of sport.

However, what children learn from watching sports is by no means all negative and parents should make sure they accentuate the positives too. They should emphasise to children the high reputation that well-behaved players have, not just with their teammates but also with spectators and the media. They can focus on the contribution made by such players during a game, discussing how valuable they are in the team. In the interviews after a game, point out to a child that the well-behaved sportspeople don’t gloat when they win or sulk when they lose. And parents can stress how well these people conduct themselves in their personal lives and the good work they do for others when not playing. In other words, parents should get their children to focus on the positive role models, rather than the antics of the badly behaved but often more publicized players.

                                                              (Adapter from “New English File – Advanced” by Will Maddox)

Question 36. Which of the following does the passage mainly discuss?

A. The importance of team spirit in sport

B. The influence of model sportspeople on children

C. Moral lessons for children from watching sports

D. Different attitudes toward bad behavior in sport

Question 37. The word “bolstered” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.

A. inspired. B. represented. C. energized. D. reinforced.

Question 38. According to paragraph 2, what should parents teach their children through watching sports?

A. Cheating is frowned upon by the majority of players.

B. A team with badly-behaved players will not win a game.

C. A player’s performance is of greater value than his behavior.

D. Collaboration is fundamental to any team’s success.

Question 39. The word “accentuate” in paragraph 4 can be best replaced by _______.

A. highlight. B. embolden. C. consolidate. D. actualize.

Question 40. The word “They” in paragraph 4 refers to _______.

A. children. B. spectators. C. teammates. D. parents.

Question 41. Which of the following about sport is NOT mentioned in the passage?

A. Misconduct from sportspeople may go unpunished despite the presence of officials.

B. A well-behaved player enjoys a good reputation among his teammates, spectators and the media.

C. Reactions of coaches and managers when their teams lose a game may be of educational value.

D. Many sportspeople help others so as to project good images of themselves.

Question 42. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

A. The media tend to turn the spotlight more on sportspeople’s wrongdoings than on their good deeds.

B. The well-behaved players in a game invariably display desirable conducts when not playing.

C. Players with good attitudes make a greater contribution to their teams’ budgets than others.

D. Well-mannered players sometimes display strong emotions after winning or losing a game.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 43. It is essential that cancer is diagnosed and treated as early as possible in order to assure a successful cure.

A. that B. is C. treated D. to assure

Question 44. Alternative therapies often dismiss by orthodox medicine because they are sometimes administered by people with no formal medical training.

A. often dismiss B. because C. administered by D. formal

Question 45. It concerns many socialogists that inadequate parents skills may lead to an increase in the 

number of incidents of juvenile delinquency.

A. concerns B. parents skills C. incidents D. juvenile delinquency

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 46. Soil erosion is a result of forests being cut down carelessly.

A. That forests are being cut down carelessly results from soil erosion

B. Soil erosion contributes to forests being cut down carelessly.

C. Soil erosion results in forests being cut down carelessly. 

D. That forests are being cut down carelessly leads to soil erosion.

Question 47. It is believed that modem farming methods have greatly improved farmers’ lives.

A. People believe that there is little improvement in farmers’ lives thanks to modem farming methods.

B. Modem farming methods were believed to have greatly improved farmers’ lives.

C. Modem farming methods are believed to have had negative effects on farmers’ lives.

D. Farmers are believed to have enjoyed a much better life thanks to modem farming methods.

Question 48. I’m certain Luis was on top of the world when his wife gave birth to their first child.

A. Luisa must be on top of the world when his wife gave birth to their first child.

B. Luisa must have been on top of the world when his wife gave birth to their first child.

C. Luisa could have been on top of the world when his wife gave birth to their first child.

D. Luisa may be very on top of the world when his wife gave birth to their first child.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 49. His friends supported and encouraged him. He did really well in the competition.

A. Such were his friends’ support and encouragement that he couldn’t do really well in the competition.

B. Had it not been for his friends’ support and encouragement, he couldn’t have done so well in the competition.

C. No matter how much his friends supported and encouraged him, he couldn’t do well in the competition.

D. If his friends had given him support and encouragement, he could have done really well in the competition.

Question 50. We gain more knowledge about how to stay safe online. We worry about the threats of cybercrime less.

A. The more knowledge about how to stay safe online we gain, the less we worry about the threats of cybercrime.

B. The more we stay online to gain safety knowledge, the less we worry about the threats of cybercrime.

C. The more knowledge about how to stay safe online we gain, the more we worry about the threats of cybercrime. 

D. The more we know about how to stay safe online, we worry about the threats of cybercrime less.

THE END

ĐÁP ÁN - TEST 6

1. A	6. A	11. A	16. C	21. A	26. A	31. A	36. C	41. D	46. D
2. C	7. A	12. D	17. D	22. D	27. D	32. D	37. D	42. A	47. D
3. B	8. D	13. B	18. A	23. A	28. C	33. C	38. D	43. B	48. B
4. A	9. B	14. D	19. B	24. A	29. A	34. B	39. A	44. A	49. B
5. B	10. A	15. A	20. D	25. A	30. D	35. D	40. D	45. B	50. A

PRACTICE TEST 7

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions from 1 to 15.

Question 1 (NB): Lady Gaga is an American singer, songwriter and actress, ______? 

A. doesn't she B. hasn't she C. won't she D. isn't she 

Question 2 (TH): On our trip to Spain, we crossed ______ Atlantic Ocean. 

A. x B. a C. the D. an 

Question 3 (TH): She likes reading books ______ the library. 

A. on B. at C. in D. from 

Question 4 (TH): The government suggests ______ robots to access remote areas that are dangerous to the lives of militants. 

A. to design B. designing C. design D. designed 

Question 5 (NB): If the bride's father ______ the car, she would be at the Church now. 

A. has B. had C. will have D. would have 

Question 6 (TH): Since Helen ______ 10 years old, she has mastered Braille as well as the manual alphabet and even learned to use the typewriter. 

A. was B. were C. will be D. has been 

Question 7 (TH): People should stop smoking ______ it is extremely detrimental to health. 

A. although B. despite C. because of D. because 

Question 8 (TH): She will take management training course ______. 

A. as soon as the epidemic was controlled B. when the epidemic had been controlled 

C. until the epidemic will be controlled D. right after the epidemic has been controlled 

Question 9 (TH): You can't expect ______ a foreign language in a few months. 

A. learn B. learning C. to learn D. to learning 

Question 10 (TH): Good students aren't ______ intelligent students. 

A. necessity B. unnecessary C. necessary D. necessarily 

Question 11 (VD): He ______ some excuse about his daughter being sick. 

A. broke in B. made up C. run across D. took after 

Question 12 (VD): The US president Barack Obama ______ an official visit to Vietnam in May 2016, which is of great significance to the comprehensive bilateral partnership. 

A. delivered B. paid C. offered D. gave 

Question 13 (TH): The ______ of toothpaste are located in the health and beauty section of the supermarket. 

A. pints B. tubes C. quarts D. sticks 

Question 14 (TH): There is no longer the ______ use of animals to test products. Only some are used. 

A. expansive B. intensive C. extensive D. tentative 

Question 15 (VDC): Alex dreams of going on tour – he's just waiting for his big ______ to get his foot in the door of the music industry. 

A. break B. cheese C. cake D. deal 

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 16 to 20.

Dressing up in costumes and trick-or-treating are popular Halloween activities, but few probably (16) ______ these lighthearted fall traditions with their origins in Samhain, a three-day ancient Celtic pagan festival.

For the Celts, who lived during the Iron Age in what is now Ireland, Scotland, the U.K. and (17) ______ parts of Northern Europe, Samhain (meaning literally, in modern Irish, “summer's end”) marked the end of summer and kicked off the Celtic new year. Ushering in a new year signaled a time of both death and rebirth, something that was doubly symbolic because it (18) ______ with the end of a bountiful harvest season and the beginning of a cold and dark winter season that would present plenty of challenges.

Eventually, Halloween became more popular in secular culture than All Saints' Day. The pagan-turned- Christian practices of dressing up in costumes, playing pranks and handing out offerings have evolved into popular traditions even for those (19) ______ may not believe in otherworldly spirits or saints. (20) ______, whether Halloween celebrants know it or not, they’re following the legacy of the ancient Celts who, with the festival of Samhain, celebrated the inevitability of death and rebirth.

Question 16 (VD): A. separate B. estimate C. associate D. celebrate 

Question 17 (TH): A. each B. every C. another D. other 

Question 18 (TH): A. coincided B. originated C. compared D. occurred 

Question 19 (TH): A. which B. whom C. who D. what 

Question 20 (TH): A. Moreover B. However C. Instead D. Therefore 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges from 21 to 22.

Question 21 (TH): Mary is talking to her professor in his office.

- Mary: “Can you tell me how to find material for my science report, professor?”

- Professor: “__________” 

A. Try your best, Mary. B. You mean the podcasts from other students? 

C. You can borrow books from the library. D. I like it that you understand. 

Question 22 (TH): – Tom: “Who's going to win the contest?” – Jerry: “______________.” 

A. There's nothing you don't know about beauty 

B. Your guess is as good as mine 

C. It might be a good idea to bet 

D. I've set my heart on winning it 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions from 23 to 24.

Question 23 (TH): The student service centre will try their best to assist students in finding a suitable part-time job. 

A. employ B. help C. make D. allow 

Question 24 (TH): She was brought up in a well-off family. She can't understand the problems we are facing. 

A. wealthy B. kind C. broke D. comfortable 

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions from 25 to 27.

Question 25 (TH): Facebook allow you to send messages and post status updates to keep in touch with friends and family. 

A. and B. to keep C. allow D. status updates 

Question 26 (TH): Many places of history, scientific, cultural, or scenic importance have been designated national monuments. 

A. history B. cultural C. have D. been designated 

Question 27 (TH): Just as the performance ended, all the concertgoers raised to their feet and applauded. 

A. raised B. Just as C. their feet D. ended 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions from 28 to 30.

Question 28 (TH): Helen's boss earns more money than she does. 

A. Helen doesn't earn as much money as her boss. 

B. Helen's boss earns as much as she does. 

C. Helen earns more money than her boss. 

D. Helen's boss earns less money than she does. 

Question 29 (TH): Cindy said that “I haven't seen John since last month.” 

A. Cindy said she wasn't seen John since the previous month. 

B. Cindy said she hadn't seen John since the previous month. 

C. Cindy said she hasn't seen John since last month. 

D. Cindy said I hadn't seen John since the previous month. 

Question 30 (VD): John is not here, perhaps he is ill. 

A. Because of his illness, John shouldn't have been here. 

B. John might be ill, so he is not here. 

C. John must be ill, so he is not here. 

D. John needn't be here because he is ill. 

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions from 31 to 32.

Question 31 (NB): A. effort B. actor C. perform D. area 

Question 32 (NB): A. disappear B. recommend C. entertain D. fortunate 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each of sentences in the following questions from 33 to 34.

Question 33 (VDC): You can go out with your friends. Make sure you finish your homework by 5 p.m. 

A. As long as you finish your homework by 5 p.m., you can go out with your friends. 

B. You cannot go out with your friends provided you finish your homework by 5 p.m. 

C. You can't go out with your friends in case you cannot finish your homework by 5 p.m. 

D. Unless you finish your homework by 5 p.m., you can go out with your friends. 

Question 34 (VDC): He has great intelligence. He can solve all the problems very quickly. 

A. So intelligent a student is he that he can solve all the problems very quickly. 

B. An intelligent student is he that he can solve all the problems very quickly. 

C. So intelligent is he that he can solve all the problems very quickly. 

D. He is very intelligent that he can solve all the problems very quickly. 

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheer to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 39.

As customers choose brands based on how they make them feel, rather than their actual products or services, there is an intrinsic advantage to those organizations who use designed experiences as a weapon to cut through the most competitive of markets. Those that don't, operate in what we call the “experience gap”, the space between them and their customer's expectation of them. Make no mistake, in our high paced and digitally connected economies, the experience gap is driving markets, fast.

For example, take Instagram and Twitter. These brands filled the demand for a whole new human experience that did not exist before the evolution of digital technologies enabled that. They were pioneers, and there were no established players to unseat. But we are also seeing a similar dynamic in existing industries. New entrants are coming in and taking the space, also using whole new experiences, purely because the incumbents left the door open.

Closer to home, this can be seen with Australian neobanks who are giving customers a better experience than the incumbents. Robert Bell is the CEO at neobank 86400. He says banking has already become quite complicated and he wanted to make a change. His neobank is working to solve customers’ problems more holistically. Bell said, “It's significantly harder work and takes more time to become a bank, but having done that we can have a much better relationship with our customers and we can offer them a lot more products and services.”

Think about that for a moment. Do you notice how better experiences, leads to better relationships, which is then the stepping stone for more offerings? Many brands still jump straight to modified offerings, without gaining that customer connection and the necessary foundation of trust first.

(Source: https://which-50.com/)

Question 35 (VD): What does the passage mainly discuss? 

A. The importance of experience to competitive advantage. 

B. Businesses are unwilling to disrupt themselves. 

C. A far-reaching cultural transformation. 

D. Knowledge drives behavior, loyalty, satisfaction. 

Question 36 (TH): The word “them” in paragraph 1 refers to _______. 

A. brands B. economies C. customers D. markets 

Question 37 (TH): According to paragraph 2, what is true about Instagram and Twitter in the stated instance? 

A. They are the one and only companies providing such revolutionary services. 

B. Prior to their advent, there were already several competitors in the field. 

C. They were the trailblazers for the experience-oriented marketing strategy. 

D. Their reputation famously preceded even the 4th Industrial Revolution. 

Question 38 (TH): According to paragraph 3, what is the attitude of Robert Bell towards the customers? 

A. He views them as the golden goose for his business. 

B. He displays worship in its purest form towards them. 

C. He sees them as modern slaves to consumerism. 

D. He maintains a healthy relationship of give and take. 

Question 39 (TH): What does the phrase “stepping stone” in paragraph 4 mean? 

A. An important clue to understanding something that is challenging or puzzling. 

B. An asset or possession prized as being the best of a group of similar things. 

C. A person who travels without settling down for any significant period of time 

D. An action or event that helps one to make progress towards a specified goal. 

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions from 40 to 41.

Question 40 (NB): A. jumps B. arrives C. follows D. rains 

Question 41 (NB): A. effect B. enter C. restore D. engage 

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 42 to 48.

Nepal has made important progress over the past few years to promote equality, but the country still has one of the highest rates of child marriage in the world. 41% of Nepalese girls are married before the age of 18.

Poverty is both a cause and consequence of child marriage in Nepal. Girls from the wealthiest families marry 2 years later than those from the poorest, who are seen as an economic burden, and who drop out of school and earn little money.

Food insecurity plays an important role too. Nepalese families that do not have enough food to eat are more likely to marry their daughters at a young age to decrease the financial burden. One study shows that 91% of people who had secure access to food married over the age of 19.

Dowry is also a common practice in many communities. Parents marry their daughters as soon as possible because the money they have to pay for the groom's family is higher if their daughter is older. Since 2010, the legal age of marriage is 20 for both men and women, or 18 with parental consent, according to the Nepalese Country Code.

The law states that punishment for child marriage is imprisonment for up to three years and a fine of up to 10,000 rupees (£102). But reports suggest that this law is rarely applied. There has been quite a lot of progress in Nepal over the past 3 years with a clear government commitment to ending child marriage and civil society cooperation. The Ministry of Women, Children and Social Welfare is currently developing Nepal's first national strategy on child marriage in collaboration with UNICEF Nepal and Girls Not Brides Nepal. However, the post-earthquake and post-fuel crisis environment has meant progress is slow and the national strategy has been delayed.

(Adapted from http://www.girlsnotbrides.org/)

Question 42 (VD): Which of the following best serves as the title for the passage? 

A. Nepal Government in an attempt to reduce social inequality. 

B. Child marriage - A completely tractable problem in Nepal. 

C. Nepal's strategies to child protection programming. 

D. One type of child abuse in Nepal: Child Marriage. 

Question 43 (TH): According to paragraph 2, in Nepal, girls from needy families _______. 

A. play an important role in bolstering their household finances 

B. can get married two years later than those are from poor families 

C. are forced to drop out of school because their parents have no money 

D. have to get married earlier than those are from affluent families 

Question 44 (TH): The word “those” in paragraph 2 refers to _______. 

A. girls B. years C. rates D. families 

Question 45 (TH): The word “burden” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______. 

A. potency B. load C. cargo D. issue 

Question 46 (TH): The word “imprisonment” in the last paragraph could be best replaced by _______. 

A. salvation B. custody C. detention D. emblem 

Question 47 (VD): According to the passage, which of the following statements is NOT true? 

A. Parents who marry their children before the allowed age normally pay a fine. 

B. The age of marriage in Nepal depends on the money the families have. 

C. According to the law, if people have their parents' permission, they are allowed to marry at 18. 

D. Nepalese families have a tendency to marry their daughters at a young age. 

Question 48 (VDC): It can be inferred from the passage _______. 

A. Nepal had the highest overall prevalence of child marriage in the world 

B. The recent earthquake was negative for the eradication of child marriage 

C. Families want to marry their daughters soon to earn money 

D. The government is not doing much to put an end to child marriage 

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions from 49 to 50.

Question 49 (TH): Thousands are going starving because of the failure of this year's harvest. 

A. rich B. hungry C. poor D. full 

Question 50 (VDC): Tom was too wet behind the ears to be in charge of such a difficult task. 

A. full of sincerity B. without money 

C. lack of responsibility D. full of experience 

ĐÁP ÁN – TEST 7

1-D	2-C	3-C	4-B	5-B	6-A	7-D	8-D	9-C	10-D
11-B	12-B	13-B	14-C	15-A	16-C	17-D	18-A	19-C	20-B
21-C	22-B	23-B	24-A	25-C	26-A	27-A	28-A	29-B	30-B
31-C	32-D	33-A	34-C	35-A	36-C	37-C	38-D	39-D	40-A
41-B	42-D	43-D	44-A	45-B	46-C	47-A	48-B	49-D	50-D

PRACTICE TEST 8

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from that of the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Câu 1 (NB): A. areas B. states C. countries D. regions 

Câu 2 (NB): A. meat B. bean C. sweat D. meaning 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Câu 3 (NB): A. support B. slogan C. icon D. motto 

Câu 4 (NB): A. dominate B. disagree C. disrespect D. interfere 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Câu 5 (TH): Every (A) students (B) was sick last week, (C) so the professor (D) canceled the lecture. 

A. students B. was C. so D. canceled the lecture 

Câu 6 (TH): (A) The vineyards of Napa Valley (B) are at once (C) breathlessly vibrant, symmetrical, and (D) the green is profound. 

A. The B. are C. breathlessly D. the green is profound 

Câu 7 (VD): Public speaking is (A) quite a (B) frightening experience for many people as it can produce a (C) status of mind similar to (D) panic. 

A. quite B. frightening C. status D. panic 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Câu 8 (NB): Nobody called me yesterday, ……………….? 

A. didn't it B. do they C. didn't they D. did they 

Câu 9 (TH): We're having problems ………...... the right material for your dress. 

A. to find B. finding C. find D. found 

Câu 10 (TH): If I ................. harder for the test, I would have gotten a better grade. 

A. had studied B. will study C. did study D. would study 

Câu 11 (VD): I have to ............ my notes once again to make sure I have learned all important details before the exam. 

A. go over B. put up with C. take after D. pull down 

Câu 12 (TH): My hairline is ............so rapidly that I need to shop for a wig right away. 

A. mandating B. maligning C. marching D. receding 

Câu 13 (TH): In order to access the building, she had to walk in the street with her walker and risk her safety ............ there were no accessible curb ramps. 

A. because B. despite C. however D. although 

Câu 14 (TH): Bill's mother won't let him go out with his friends …………………. . 

A. after he had finished his homework B. once he finished his homework C. until he has finished his homework D. when he finished his homework 

Câu 15 (TH): In a blizzard, the ............ of very low temperatures, strong wind and suffocating snow often proves fatal. 

A. endurance B. engagement C. consistence D. combination 

Câu 16 (VD): My new colleague is a bit of a rough ………….. but I think I'm going to like him once I get used to him. 

A. stone B. rock C. diamond D. pearl 

Câu 17 (TH): They galloped on horseback …………. the length of the beautiful coastline. 

A. along B. over C. through D. on 

Câu 18 (TH): I think a teacher should be quite ………… so that the students who want to learn don't worry about other students playing around. 

A. strictly B. strict C. strictness D. strictest 

Câu 19 (TH): The man ........... the books and pens is the new economics and mathematics teacher. 

A. carried B. carry C. carrying D. having carried 

Câu 20 (TH): Spain is one of ………………largest European countries. 

A. an B. the C. a D. Ø (no article) 

Câu 21 (TH): At last I have discovered how ……......... the door. 

A. to be opened B. opening C. to open D. open 

Câu 22 (TH): Her academic performance has greatly improved since she ……………. her study methods. 

A. changed B. will change C. would change D. was changing 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the followings.

Câu 23 (TH): His career in the illicit drug trade ended with the police raid this morning. 

A. illegal B. irregular C. secret D. loyal 

Câu 24 (VD): "I missed the deadline for cancelling the subject I hate.”

"Oh, well, I guess you'll have to tough it out then until the end of the semester." 

A. to train to become tougher B. to deal with your own stupidity 

C. to have no choice but to manage it D. to try to become stronger 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Câu 25 (TH): Research suggests that children are more resilient than adults when it comes to getting over an illness. 

A. making a quick recovery B. becoming healthy again

  C. making a slow recovery D. becoming much stronger 

Câu 26 (TH): There are one or two similarities between my country and the UK, but on the whole, they are so disparate that it is difficult to find any common ground. 

A. different B. identical C. distinct D. dissimilar 

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Under the city streets

While skyscraper offices and elegant apartment blocks remain the public face of most major cities, these cities also have a mass of secret tunnels and .......(27)...... pipes below ground which keep everything working. This other world exists, forgotten or neglected by all but a tiny number of engineers and historians.

 For example, there are more than 150 kilometers of rivers under the streets of London. Most have been covered over and, sadly, all that .......(28)...... is their names. Perhaps the greatest loss to the city is the River Fleet, a once great river which previously had beautiful houses on its banks. It now goes underground in the north of the city and flows into the River Thames by Blackfriars Bridge.

 The London Underground has 1,000 kilometers of underground railway tracks winding under the capital and more than 100 stations .......(29)...... street level. Along some underground railway lines, commuters can sometimes catch a brief glimpse of the platforms of more than 40 closed stations which have been left under the city. .......(30)...... some are used as film sets, most lie forgotten. Some have had their entrances on the street turned into restaurants and shops, but most entrances have been .....(31)...... down.

Câu 27 (TH): A. hide B. hiding C. hidden D. to hide 

Câu 28 (TH): A. remains B. stops C. says D. keeps 

Câu 29 (TH): A. above B. below C. on D. over 

Câu 30 (TH): A. Despite B. Unless C. Although D. Since 

Câu 31 (VD): A. cut B. broken C. brought D. pulled 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Câu 32 (TH): Brian is in Marketing class at Bristol University.

Brian: “How come some marketing schemes feasible in Europe can never work in Asia, professor?”

The professor: “………………………………………!” 

A. I'd love it. B. That's a good question. 

C. You shouldn't have asked it. D. I can't wait to see. 

Câu 33 (TH): Chris is a university student. He comes to visit his professor, Mr. Brown, during office hours.

Chris: “Excuse me. I don't want to interrupt you but...”

Mr. Brown: “………………………………..” 

A. What can I do for you? B. Certainly, how dare you! 

C. I quite agree. D. I have no idea. 

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

 There are a number of natural disasters that can strike across the globe. Two that are frequently linked to one another are earthquakes and tsunamis. Both of them can cause a great amount of devastation when they hit. However, tsunamis are the direct result of earthquakes and cannot happen without them.

 The Earth has three main parts. They are the crust, the mantle, and the core. The crust is the outer layer of the Earth. It is not a single piece of land. Instead, it is comprised of a number of plates. There are a few enormous plates and many smaller ones. These plates essentially rest upon the mantle, which is fluid. As a result, the plates are in constant - yet slow – motion. The plates may move away from or towards other plates. In some cases, they collide violently with the plates adjoining them. The movement of the plates causes tension in the rock. Over a long time, this tension may build up. When it is released, an earthquake happens.

 Tens of thousands of earthquakes happen every year. The vast majority are so small that only scientific instruments can perceive them. Others are powerful enough that people can feel them, yet they cause little harm or damage. More powerful earthquakes, however, can cause buildings, bridges, and other structures to collapse. They may additionally injure and kill thousands of people and might even cause the land to change its appearance.

 Since most of the Earth's surface is water, numerous earthquakes happen beneath the planet's oceans. Underwater earthquakes cause the seafloor to move. This results in the displacement of water in the ocean. When this occurs, a tsunami may form. This is a wave that forms on the surface and moves in all directions from the place where the earthquake happened. A tsunami moves extremely quickly and can travel thousands of kilometers. As it approaches land, the water near the coast gets sucked out to sea. This causes the tsunamis to increase in height. Minutes later, the tsunami arrives. A large tsunami - once more than ten meters in height - can travel far inland. As it does that, it can flood the land, destroy human settlements, and kill large numbers of people.

Câu 34 (NB): The word "it" in bold in paragraph 2 refers to.............. 

A. The mantle B. The crust C. The Earth D. The core 

Câu 35 (TH): The word “perceive” in bold in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to……………….. 

A. locate B. comprehend C. prevent D. detect 

Câu 36 (TH): Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 3 about earthquakes? 

A. How many people they typically kill B. How often powerful ones take place

C. What kind of damage they can cause D. How severe the majority of them are 

Câu 37 (TH): Based on the passage, what is probably TRUE about tsunamis? 

A. They kill more people each year than earthquakes. 

B. They are able to move as fast as the speed of sound. 

C. They can be deadly to people standing nearshore. 

D. They cannot damage ships sailing on the ocean. 

Câu 38 (VD): What is the passage mainly about? 

A. How earthquakes and tsunamis occur. 

B. What kind of damage natural disasters can cause. 

C. Why tsunamis are deadlier than earthquakes. 

D. When earthquakes are the most likely to happen. 

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

 Basic to any understanding of Canada in the 20 years after the Second World War is the country's impressive population growth. For every three Canadians in 1945, there were over five in 1966. In September 1966 Canada's population passed the 20 million mark. Most of these surging growth came from natural increase. The depression of the 1930s and the war had held back marriages, and the catching-up process began after 1945. The baby boom continued through the decade of the 1950s, producing a been exceeded only once before in Canada's history, in the decade before 1911, when the prairies were population increase of nearly fifteen percent in the five years from 1951 to 1956. This rate of increase had been settled. Undoubtedly, the good economic conditions of the 1950s supported a growth in the population, but the expansion also derived from a trend toward earlier marriages and an increase in the average size of families. In 1957 the Canadian birth rate stood at 28 per thousand, one of the highest in the world.

 After the peak year of 1957, the birth rate in Canada began to decline. It continued falling until 1966 it stood at the lowest level in 25 years. Partly this decline reflected the low level of births during the depression and the war, but it was also caused by changes in Canadian society. Young people were staying at school longer; more women were working; young married couples were buying automobiles or houses before starting families; rising living standards were cutting down the size of families.

 It appeared that Canada was once more falling in step with the trend toward smaller families that had occurred all through the Western world since the time of the Industrial Revolution. Although the growth in Canada's population had slowed down by 1966 (the increase in the first half of the 1960s was only nine percent), another large population wave was coming over the horizon. It would be composed of the children of the children who were born during the period of the high birth rate prior to 1957.

Câu 39 (VD): What does the passage mainly discuss? 

A. Educational changes in Canadian society B. Canada during the Second World War

  C. Population trends in postwar Canada D. Standards of living in Canada 

Câu 40 (TH): According to the passage, when did Canada's baby boom begin? 

A. In the decade after 1911 B. After 1945 

C. During the depression of the 1930's D. In 1966 

Câu 41 (TH): The word "surging" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to………………… 

A. new B. extra C. accelerating D. surprising 

Câu 42 (TH): The word "trend" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to........... 

A. tendency B. aim C. growth D. directive 

Câu 43 (VD): The author mentions all of the following as causes of declines in population growth after 1957 EXCEPT …………. 

A. people being better educated B. people getting married earlier 

C. better standards of living D. couples buying houses 

Câu 44 (VDC): It can be inferred from the passage that before the Industrial Revolution ………….. 

A. families were larger B. population statistics were unreliable

  C. the population grew steadily D. economic conditions were bad 

Câu 45 (TH): The word "It" in the last paragraph refers to……………. 

A. horizon B. population wave C. nine percent D. first half 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Câu 46 (VD): We won't get married until I have graduated from college. 

A. We won't be married although I have graduated from college. 

B. We are getting married because I have graduated from college. 

C. We will get married when I graduate from college. 

D. We won't get married even when I have graduated from college. 

Câu 47 (VD): But for him, I wouldn't have been able to finish my work. 

A. He stopped me from being able to finish my work. 

B. I tried my best to finish my work for him. 

C. If he hadn't helped me, I couldn't have finished my work. 

D. I couldn't finish my work because of him. 

Câu 48 (VDC): "I'm sorry I forgot your birthday," he told me. 

A. He complained that I forgot his birthday. B. He refused to go to my birthday party. 

C. He begged me to forget my birthday. D. He apologized for forgetting my birthday. 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Câu 49 (VDC): New York is described as the world's cultural centre. It is situated on the bank of Hudson River. 

A. As long as New York is described as the world's cultural centre, it is situated on the bank of Hudson River. 

B. In spite of the fact that it is situated on the bank of Hudson River, New York is described as the world's cultural centre. 

C. Because it is situated on the bank of Hudson River, New York is described as the world's cultural centre. 

D. New York, which is situated on the bank of Hudson River, is described as the world's cultural centre. 

Câu 50 (VDC): Sunbathing is still a popular activity. People do it even though they know it can cause cancer. 

A. Despite the fact that sunbathing can cause cancer, it is still a popular activity. 

B. Because sunbathing is still a popular activity, it can cause cancer. 

C. Sunbathing is still a popular activity as long as it can cause cancer. 

D. Unless it can cause cancer, sunbathing is still a popular activity. 

ĐÁP ÁN – TEST 8

1-B	2-C	3-A	4-A	5-A	6-D	7-C	8-D	9-B	10-A
11-A	12-D	13-A	14-C	15-D	16-C	17-A	18-B	19-C	20-B
21-C	22-A	23-A	24-D	25-C	26-B	27-C	28-A	29-B	30-C
31-D	32-B	33-A	34-B	35-B	36-B	37-C	38-A	39-C	40-B
41-C	42-A	43-B	44-A	45-B	46-C	47-C	48-D	49-D	50-A

PRACTICE TEST 9

Mark the letter A, B, c, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Câu 1 (NB): A. interact      B. understand C. volunteer   D. contribute 

Câu 2 (NB): A. maintain B. perform C. prefer D. offer 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Câu 3 (NB): A. cleaned B. looked C. climbed D. enjoyed 

Câu 4 (NB): A. lake B. play C. shape D. many 

Mark the letter A, B, c, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Câu 5 (TH): At first, John said he hadn’t broken the vase, but later he accepted it. 

A. denied B. discussed C. protected D. admitted 

Câu 6 (TH): An indecisive commander is unlikely to win the confidence of his men. 

A. slow B. determined C. hesitant D. reliant 

Mark the letter A, B, c, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Câu 7 (TH): My kids only have a faint memory of our hometown as they have lived away from it for a long time. 

A. poor B. clear C. quick D. vague 

Câu 8 (VDC): When I suggested he was mistaken, John got hot under the collar and stormed out of the room. 

A. got emotional B. became furious C. remained calm D. felt anxious 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Câu 9 (TH): The teacher demanded that the classroom _____ cleaned immediately. 

A. is B. be C. are D. was 

Câu 10 (TH): As soon as I _____, I’m going to return to my hometown. 

A. have graduated B. will graduate C. will have graduated D. am going to graduate 

Câu 11 (TH): The captain is the last person ______ the sinking ship. 

A. leaving B. to leave C. that leave D. leaves 

Câu 12 (TH): I hope the new year will bring you _____, health and prosperity. 

A. success B. succeed C. successful D. successfully 

Câu 13 (NB): If you work hard, you _____ pass the exam. 

A. will B. won’t C. would D. wouldn’t 

Câu 14 (TH): When Tom _____ yesterday, I _____ the washing up in the kitchen. 

A. called - did B. called – was doing C. was calling - did D. was calling – was doing 

Câu 15 (TH): She always said that when she grew up, she wanted to be _____ doctor. 

A. an B. a C. the D. x 

Câu 16 (TH): _____ the sky was grey and cloudy, we went to the beach. 

A. Because B. Although C. Despite D. Because of 

Câu 17 (VD): _____ is not clear to researchers. 

A. Did dinosaurs become extinct B. Why dinosaurs having become extinct

C. Dinosaurs became extinct D. Why dinosaurs became extinct 

Câu 18 (VD): He tried to ______ himself with everyone by paying then compliments. 

A. gratify B. please C. ingratiate D. commend 

Câu 19 (TH): I think there’s a picture of the hotel _____ the first page. 

A. on B. at C. in D. of 

Câu 20 (VD): The smell was so bad that it completely _____ us off our food. 

A. set B. took C. got D. put 

Câu 21 (VDC): I won’t buy that car because it has too much _____ on it. 

A. ups and downs B. odds and ends C. wear and tear D. white lie 

Câu 22 (VD): I had a red _____ day yesterday. 

A. tape B. wood C. pepper D. letter 

Câu 23 (TH): You ___ have eaten the mushrooms if you were not sure. 

A. should B. shouldn’t C. would D. could 

Mark the letter A, B, c, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Câu 24 (TH): Jenny and Kathy are arranging to see a new film.

- Jenny: “Why don’t you come over and see the new film with me?”

- Kathy: “________” 

A. Great, I’d love to. B. Oh, I’m afraid so. 

C. You’re welcome. D. Wow! You didn’t realize that. 

Câu 25 (TH): Helen and Sarah are talking about their school’s field trip.

- Helen: “This is the best field trip we’ve ever had”.

- Sarah: “________. Everyone enjoyed it to the fullest.” 

A. I don’t think that’s a good idea B. I totally disagree 

C. You’re right D. Never mind 

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks 

Our position in the family is one of the factors (26)_________ strongly affect our personality. The eldest or first-born children get maximum (27) _________ from their parents and the result is that they are usually self-confident and ambitious people. Firstborns are also responsible because they often have to look after their younger brothers or sisters. (28) _________, they can be quite bossy and dominant as they often give orders and are fearful of losing position. Middle children are usually sociable since they have other children to play with. They are good at peacemaking and compromising. Yet, on the negative side, (29) _________ children can be jealous and moody ones. The youngest in a family is probably quite a relaxed person and some are often lazy. This is because they always have someone in the family to help them. Yet, they are charming and (30) _________, have a good sense of humor and know how to manipulate others when they want to get their way.

Câu 26 (NB): A. which B. where C. who D. what 

Câu 27 (VD): A. awareness B. attention C. attraction D. willingness 

Câu 28 (TH): A. Whenever B. In addition C. Therefore D. However 

Câu 29 (TH): A. elder B. middle C. younger D. youngest 

Câu 30 (TH): A. create B. creation C. creative D. creature 

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.

Dinosaurs were reptiles that lived during a period of earth’s history called the Mesozoic Era, which is known as the Age of Reptiles. The first dinosaurs appeared more than 200 million years ago. For many millions of years, they dominated the land with their huge size and strength. Then about 65 million years ago, they died out rather suddenly, never to reemerge.

The word dinosaur comes from two Greek words meaning “terrible lizard”. Dinosaurs were not lizards, but their appearance could be truly terrifying. The biggest ones weighed more than ten times as much as a mature elephant and nearly equaled the size of most modern-day whales. The famous kinds of dinosaurs, including the brontosaurus and tyrannosaurus, reached 80 to 90 feet in length. Not all dinosaurs were giants, however, some were actually no larger than a chicken.

Scientists still do not know what caused dinosaurs to disappear. One theory involves a change in the earth’s climate. It is believed that temperature dropped significantly towards the end of the Cretaceous Period. Too large to hibernate and not having fur or feathers for protection, it is possible that the climate became too chilly for dinosaurs. In contrast, other species having protection, such as the mammals and birds, were able to survive.

Câu 31 (VD): What is the best title for this passage? 

A. The Domination of the Land B. Dinosaurs and their extinction 

C. Earth’s Largest Reptiles D. The History of Earth 

Câu 32 (NB): The word “ones” in the passage refers to __________. 

A. dinosaurs B. millions C. lizards D. whales 

Câu 33 (TH): It can be inferred from the passage that the Age of Reptiles lasted about _______. 

A. 200 million years B. 135 million years C. 80 million years D. 65 million years 

Câu 34 (TH): The word “chilly” in the passage refers to _________. 

A. very hot B. extremely cold C. very cold D. humid 

Câu 35 (TH): According to the passage, what is TRUE about the size of dinosaurs? 

A. It made them the largest creatures ever on earth. 

B. It varied quite greatly. 

C. It guaranteed their survival. 

D. It was rather uniform. 

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions 

 Just as optical fibers have transformed communication, they are also revolutionizing medicine. These ultra - thin, flexible fibers have opened a window into the living tissues of the body. By inserting optical fibers through natural openings or small incisions and then threading them along the body's established pathways, physicians can look into the lungs, intestines, heart and other areas that were formerly inaccessible to them.

 The basic fiber-optics system is called fiberscope, which consists of two bundles of fibers. One, the illuminating bundle, carries light to the tissues. It is coupled to a high-intensity light source. Light enters the cores of the high-purity silicon glass and travels along the fibers. A lens at the end of the bundle collects the light and focuses it into the other bundle, the imaging bundle. Each fiber in the bundle transmits only a tiny fraction of the total image. The reconstructed image can be viewed through an eyepiece or displayed on a television screen. During the last five years, improved methods of fabricating optical fibers have led to a reduction in fiberscope diameter and an increase in the number of fibers, which in turn has increased resolution.

 Optical fibers can also be used to deliver laser light. By use of laser beams, physicians can perform surgery inside the body, sometimes eliminating the need for invasive procedures in which healthy tissue must be cut through to reach the site of disease. Many of these procedures do not require anesthesia and can be performed in a physician's office. These techniques have reduced the risk and the cost of medical care.

Câu 36 (VD): What is the main topic of the passage? 

A. Revolution in communication B. The invention of optical fibers 

C. New surgical techniques D. The roles of optical fibers in medicine 

Câu 37 (TH): The author uses the expression "have opened a window" to indicate that the use of optical fibers_____. 

A. has enabled scientists to make amazing discoveries 

B. sometimes requires a surgical incision 

C. allows doctors to see inside the body without major surgery 

D. has been unknown to the general public until quite recently 

Câu 38 (TH): Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word “formerly”? 

A. previously B. completely C. usually D. theoretically 

Câu 39 (TH): The word "them" in paragraph 1 refers to ____. 

A. optical fibers B. pathways C. physicians  D. other areas of the body 

Câu 40 (TH): According to the passage, what is the purpose of the illuminating bundle in a fiberscope? 

A. To carry light into the body. B. To collect and focus light. 

C. To reconstruct images. D. To perform surgery inside the body. 

Câu 41 (TH): According to the passage, how do the fiberscopes used today differ from those used in five years ago? 

A. They use brighter light. B. They are longer.

  C. They contain more fibers. D. They are larger in diameter. 

Câu 42 (VD): Which of the following is NOT mentioned by the author as one of the advantages of laser surgery techniques? 

A. They can be performed in a physician's office. 

B. They are safer than conventional surgery. 

C. They can often be performed without anesthesia. 

D. They are relatively easy to teach to physicians. 

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction ỉn each of the following questions.

Câu 43 (TH): The girl who were injured in the accident is now in hospital. 

A. who B. were C. in D. now 

Câu 44 (TH): The farmer plows the fields, plants the seeds and will harvest the crop. 

A. plows B. the fields C. the seeds D. will harvest 

Câu 45 (VD): In order to do a profit, the new leisure centre needs at least 2000 visitors a month. 

A. do a profit B. the C. at least D. a month 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. 

Câu 46 (TH): I am not as good at English as my friend. 

A. My friend is better at English than me. B. My friend is the best at English person in my class. 

C. I am the best at English person in my class. D. I am better at English than my friend. 

Câu 47 (TH): “I am going away tomorrow, mom.”, the son said. 

A. The son said that he was going away the next day, mom. 

B. The son told his mom that he was going away the next day. 

C. The son asked his mom if he was going away tomorrow. 

D. The son said his mom he was going away the next day. 

Câu 48 (VDC): Sally paid for her travel in advance, but it wasn’t necessary. 

A. Sally needn't have paid for her travel in advance. 

B. Sally might not have paid for her travel in advance. 

C. Sally may not have paid for her travel in advance. 

D. Sally couldn’t have paid for her travel in advance. 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Câu 49 (VD): Jenifer rejected the job offer. She now regrets it. 

A. Jenifer regrets not having rejected the job offer. 

B. If only Jenifer didn’t reject the job offer. 

C. Jenifer wishes she hadn’t rejected the job offer. 

D. Jenifer regrets to reject the job offer. 

Câu 50 (VDC): The master of ceremonies has a very soft voice. Everyone listens to her attentively whenever she appears on the stage. 

A. So soft is the voice of the master of ceremonies that everyone listens to her attentively whenever she appears on the stage. 

B. As long as the master of ceremonies hadn’t had a very soft voice, everyone wouldn’t listen to her attentively whenever she appears on the stage. 

C. Only after everyone listens to the master of ceremonies attentively whenever she appears on the stage does she have a very soft voice. 

D. But for a very soft voice, everyone would listen to her attentively whenever she appears on the stage. 

ĐÁP ÁN – TEST 9

1-D	2-D	3-B	4-D	5-D	6-C	7-B	8-C	9-B	10-A
11-B	12-A	13-A	14-B	15-B	16-B	17-D	18-C	19-A	20-D
21-C	22-D	23-B	24-A	25-C	26-A	27-B	28-D	29-B	30-C
31-B	32-A	33-B	34-C	35-B	36-D	37-C	38-A	39-C	40-A
41-C	42-D	43-B	44-D	45-A	46-A	47-B	48-A	49-C	50-A

PRACTICE TEST 10

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the three in
pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1. A. mindset B. application C. discrimination D. disposal

Question 2. A. interviewed B. remembered C. established D. claimed

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of
the primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3. A. achievement B. anonymous C. community D. bronchi

Question 4. A. biomass B. geothermal C. perseverance D. Generosity

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5. I saw a terrible accident while I _________ on the beach.

A. am walking B. was walking C. walked D. were walking

Question 6. The Japanese market _________ 35 per cent of the company's revenue. 

A. lets in B. accounts for C. cares for D. takes in

Question 7. The biggest fear is that humans might _________ control over robots. 

A. lose B. take C. keep D. gain

Question 8. They had sold out all the tickets _________. 

A. until we were arriving at the theater B. when we arrived at the theater 

C. because we have arrived at the theater D. in case we had arrived at the theater

Question 9. The customer said she'd like this coat if it was _________ nicer colour. 

A. the B. Ø (no article) C. a D. an 

Question 10. The talks were meant to break down _________ between the two groups. 

A. gates B. walls C. barriers D. fences 

Question 11. _________ are that stock price will go up in the coming months. 

A. Chances B. Opportunities C. Possibilities D. Conditions

Question 12. We didn’t go anywhere yesterday _________ the rain. 

A. because B. in spite of C. because of D. though 

Question 13. The boy insisted on _________ a break after lunch. 

A. have B. having C. to have D. had

Question 14. You couldn't help me with my homework, _________? 

A. couldn't you B. will you C. won’t you D. could you

Question 15. It was such a _________ victory then even Smith’s fans couldn’t believe it. 

A. surprisingly B. surprise C. surprising D. surprised

Question 16. Columbus discovered America _________ the 15th century. 

A. in B. to C. at D. on 

Question 17. I really enjoy being with my father. He has got a really good _________ of humour. 

A. sense B. way C. mood D. feeling

Question 18. You will get a good seat if you _________ first. 

A. will come B. would come C. came D. come

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word in each of the following questions. 

Question 19. Every time he opens his mouth, he immediately regrets what he said. He’s always putting  his foot in his mouth. 

A. making a mistake B. doing things in the wrong order 

C. saying embarrassing things D. speaking indirectly 

Question 20. In the Navajo household, grandparents and other relatives play indispensable roles in raising the children. 

A. demanding B. outstanding C. dominant D. essential

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 

Question 21. I must have a watch since punctuality is imperative in my new job. 

A. being late B. being efficient C. being cheerful D. being courteous 

Question 22. He’ll give Joe a red rose and a lovey- dovey poem he wrote. 

A. lovesick B. wild C. tragic D. romantic

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes the following exchanges. 

Question 23. - Mike: “My first English test was not as good as I expected.” 

- Thomas: “__________________” 

A. Never mind, better job next time! B. Good Heavens! 

C. That’s brilliant enough! D. It’s okay, don’t worry.

Question 24. - John: “Do you think that we should use public transportation to protect our environment?” 

 - Linda: “___________________” 

A. Well, that’s very surprising B. Yes, it’s an absurd idea 

C. Of course not. You bet D. There is no doubt about it

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to choose the word or phrase that best fits each other numbered blanks. 

  Wind is a clean source of renewable energy that produces no air or water pollution. And since the wind is free, operational costs are nearly zero (25) _______ a turbine is erected. Mass production and technology advances are making turbines cheaper, and (26) _______ governments offer tax incentives to spur wind-energy development. Drawbacks include complaints from (27) _______ that wind turbines are ugly and noisy. The slowly rotating blades can also kill birds and bats, but not nearly as many as cars, power lines, and high-rise buildings do. The wind is also variable: If it's not blowing, there's no electricity generated. Nevertheless, the wind energy industry is (28) _______. Thanks to global efforts to combat climate change, such as the Paris Agreement, renewable energy is seeing a boom in growth, in (29) _______ wind energy has led the way. From 2000 to 2015, cumulative wind capacity around the world increased from 17,000 megawatts to more than 430,000 megawatts. In 2015, China also surpassed the EU in the number of installed wind turbines and continues to lead installation efforts. 

(Adapted from https://www.nationalgeographic.com/) 

Question 25. A. therefore B. once C. though D. so that

Question 26. A. few B. many C. a little D. much

Question 27. A. locals B. foreigners C. master D. levels

Question 28. A. relating B. worrying C. booming D. informing 

Question 29. A. when B. which C. why D. who

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on you answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. 

 Stella McCartney was born in 1972, the daughter of pop star Sir Paul McCartney. She is the youngest of three sisters. One sister is a potter and the other sister does the same job as their mother used to do - she works as a photographer. Stella's brother, James, is a musician. Stella first hit the newspaper headlines in 1995 when she graduated in fashion design from art college. At her final show, her clothes were modeled by her friends, Naomi Campbell and Kate Moss, both well-known models. Unsurprisingly, the student show became front-page news around the world. Stella hadn't been in the news before as a fashion designer but she had spent time working in the fashion world since she was fifteen. In March 1997, Stella went to work for the fashion house Chloe. People said the famous fashion house had given her the job because of her surname and her famous parents but Stella soon showed how good she was. She designs clothes which she would like to wear herself, although she's not a model, and many famous models and actors choose to wear them. In 2001 Stella started her own fashion house and has since opened stores around the world and won many prizes. A lifelong vegetarian, McCartney does not use any leather or fur in her design. Instead, she uses silk, wool and other animal-derived fabrics. 

(Source: Adapted from Objective PET)

Question 30. Which of the following is NOT true about Stella’s family? 

A. She is the youngest. B. Her father is a famous singer. 

C. One of her sisters is a photographer. D. She has three sisters. 

Question 31. Stella, Naomi Campbell and Kate Moss__________. 

A. had been friends before 1995 B. are very famous fashion models 

C. all performed at the final show in 1995 D. met for the first time at her fashion show 

Question 32. Which of the following is TRUE about the show? 

A. There was no one famous appearing in the show. 

B. Everyone was surprised when Stella’s show was successful. 

C. The show was the last show of Stella. 

D. The models performed clothes designed by Stella. 

Question 33. The word “them” in the passage refers to _________. 

A. clothes B. models C. prizes D. actors 

Question 34. The word “lifelong” in the passage is closest in meaning to _________. 

A. permanent B. changing C. temporary D. inconstant

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. 

  An air pollutant is defined as a compound added directly or indirectly by humans to the atmosphere in such quantities as to affect humans, animals, vegetation, or materials adversely. Air pollution requires a very flexible definition that permits continuous changes. When the first air pollution laws were established in England in the fourteenth century, air pollutants were limited to compounds that could be seen or smelled- a far cry from the extensive list of harmful substances known today. As technology has developed and knowledge of health aspects of various chemicals has increased, the list of air pollutants has lengthened. In the future, even water vapor might be considered an air pollutant under certain conditions. 

  Many of more important air pollutants, such as sulfur oxides, carbon monoxides and nitrogen oxides are found in nature. As the Earth developed, the concentration of these pollutants was altered by various chemical reactions; they became components in biogeochemical cycles. These serve as an air purification scheme by allowing the compounds to move from the air to the water or soil. On a global basis, nature's output of these compounds dwarfs that resulting from human activities. 

  However, human production usually occurs in a localized area, such as a city. In such region, human output may be dominant and may temporarily overload the natural purification scheme of the cycles. The result is an concentration of noxious chemicals in the air. The concentrations at which the adverse effects appear will be greater than the concentrations that the pollutants would have in the absence of human activities. The actual concentration need not be large for a substance to be a pollutant; in fact, the numerical value tells us little until we know how much of an increase this represents over the concentration that would occur naturally in the area. For example, sulfur dioxide has detectable health effects at 0. 08 parts per million (ppm), which is about 400 times its natural level. Carbon monoxide, however has a natural level of 0. 1 ppm and is not usually a pollutant until its level reaches about 15 ppm. 

Question 35. What does the passage mainly discuss? 

A. How much harm air pollutants can cause. 

B. The effects of compounds added to the atmosphere. 

C. What constitutes an air pollutant? 

D. The economic impact of air pollution. 

Question 36. The word “adversely” in the first paragraph in closest in meaning to __________. 

A. negatively B. quickly C. admittedly D. considerably

Question 37. The word “These” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to __________. 

A. the compounds moved to the water or soil 

B. the components in biogeochemical cycles 

C. the pollutants from the developing Earth 

D. the various chemical reactions 

Question 38. For which of the following reasons can natural pollutants play an important role in controlling air pollution? 

A. They have existed since the Earth developed. 

B. They occur in greater quantities than other pollutants. 

C. They are less harmful to living beings than other pollutants. 

D. They function as part of a purification process. 

Question 39. According to the passage, human-generated air pollution in localized regions __________. 

A. can overwhelm the natural system that removes pollutants 

B. can be dwarfed by nature’s output of pollutants 

C. will damage areas outside of the localized regions 

D. will react harmfully with natural pollutants 

Question 40. According to the passage, the numerical value of the concentration level of a substance is only useful if __________. 

A. it is in a localized area B. the other substances in the area are known 

C. it can be calculated quickly D. the natural level is also known 

Question 41. The word “detectable” in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to ________. 

A. beneficial B. separable C. special D. measurable 

Question 42. Which of the following is best supported by the passage? 

A. One of the most important steps in preserving natural lands is to better enforce air pollution laws. 

B. Human activities have been effective in reducing air pollution. 

C. To effectively control pollution, local government should regularly review their air pollution laws. 

D. Scientists should be consulted in order to establish uniform limits for all air pollutants.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheer to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. 

Question 43. Helen Killer, who was both blind and deafness, overcame her inabilitites with the help of her teacher, Ann Sulivan 

A. inabilities B. deafness C. who D. blind

Question 44. Fertilizer, which added to the soil to replace or increase plant nutrients, include animal and green manure, fish and bone meal and compost. 

A. include B. which C. increase D. compost

Question 45. The world is becoming more industrialized and the number of animal species that has become extinction has increased. 

A. extinction B. industrialized C. species D. has

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. 

Question 46. He took the food eagerly because he had eaten nothing since dawn. 

A. He had eaten nothing since dawn although he took the food eagerly. 

B. Having eaten nothing since dawn, he took the food eagerly. 

C. The food was taken at dawn and he had nothing to eat then. 

D. He had eaten something before but he took the food eagerly.

Question 47. However old and worn his clothes were, they looked clean and of good quality. 

A. He was fond of wearing such old and worn clothes because they were of good quality. 

B. No matter what good quality his clothes had, they looked old and worn. 

C. His clothes, though old and worn, looked clean and of good quality. 

D. His clothes looked clean and of good quality because they were old and worn.

Question 48. The children ran to the yard to see the dragon, but it was no longer there. 

A. The dragon had gone after the children ran to the yard. 

B. The dragon had gone by the time the children ran to the yard. 

C. When the children ran to the yard, the dragon was going. 

D. The dragon went by the time the children ran to the yard.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. 

Question 49. The house is very beautiful. Its gate was painted blue. 

A. The house, the gate of whom was painted blue, is very beautiful. 

B. The house, which is very beautiful, was painted blue. 

C. The house, the gate of that was painted blue, is very beautiful. 

D. The house, the gate of which was painted blue, is very beautiful. 

Question 50. Most of the classmates couldn’t come. He invited them to the birthday party. 

A. Most of the classmates he was invited to the birthday party couldn’t come. 

B. Most of the classmates which he invited to the birthday party couldn’t come. 

C. Most of the classmates he invited to the birthday party couldn’t come. 

D. Most of the classmates that he invited them to the birthday party couldn’t come.

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ĐÁP ÁN TEST 10

1-A	2-C	3-D	4-A	5-B	6-B	7-A	8-B	9-C	10-C
11-A	12-C	13-B	14-D	15-C	16-A	17-A	18-D	19-C	20-D
21-A	22-C	23-A	24-D	25-B	26-B	27-A	28-C	29-B	30-D
31-A	32-D	33-A	34-A	35-C	36-A	37-B	38-D	39-A	40-D
41-D	42-A	43-B	44-A	45-A	46-B	47-C	48-B	49-B	50-C

PRACTICE TEST 11

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 

Question 1. Copper is the favored metal for electricians' wire because of _________. 

A. its excellent conductivity B. it is excellent conductor  

C. excellent conductivity of it D. so conductive is it 

Question 2. We all congratulated Lisa _________ winning the first prize.  

A. for B. about C. with D. on 

Question 3. In 1959, the political philosopher Hannah Arendt became the first women _________ a full professor at Princeton University.  

А. to appoint B. to be appointed C. was appointed D. who be appointed as

Question 4. They decided to _________ their journey till the end of the month because of the epidemic.  

A. take up B. turn round C. put off D. do with  

Question 5. _________, we had already put out the fire.  

A. Until the firemen arrives to help B. No sooner had the firemen arrived to help  

C. By the time the firemen arrived to help D. After the firemen have arrived to help

Question 6. The course was so difficult that I didn't _________ any progress at all.  

A. make B. do C. produce D. create 

Question 7. No sooner _________ the comer than the wheel came off.  

A. the van turned B. had the van turned  

C. did the van turn D. the van had turned

Question 8. The clown was wearing a _________ wig and red nose.  

A. red funny plastic B. funny red plastic C. funny plastic red D. red plastic funny 

Question 9. I like that photo very much. Could you make an _________ for me?  

A. exploration B. enlargement C. extension D. expansion 

Question 10. Failing to submit the proposal on time was _________ for Tom.  

A. a real kick in the pants B. an open and shut case  

C. a shot in the dark D. a mail in the coffin 

Question 11. In state schools, students have to follow a National _________ specified by the Ministry of Education and Training.  

A. Subject B. Curriculum C. Program D. Obligation

Question 12. It is said the Robinhood robbed _________ rich und gave the money to _________ poor.  

A. a/ a B. a/ the C. the/ the D. the/ a  

Question 13. The second-hand car Patrick bought was almost new _________ it made in the 1990s.  

A. or B. because C. however D. Although 

Question 14. _________ no one was absent from the farewell party last night.  

A. Though it rains heavily B. As it rained heavily  

C. In spite of heavily rain D. Heavily as it rained 

Question 15. Larry was so _________ in his novel that he forgot about his dinner cooking in the oven.  

A. absorbed B. obliged C. drawn D. attracted

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. 

Question 16. A. announced B. enjoyed C. scored D. sponsored

Question 17. A. polite B. advice C. diploma D. pilot 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions. 

Question 18. A. assistance B. appearance C. position D. confidence

Question 19. A. lecture B. figure C. wonder D. inspire

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheer to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. 

Question 20. Neither the clerks nor the department manager are being considered for promotions this time. 

A. nor B. department C. are D. for promotions 

Question 21. Passing a driver's test is a necessity requirement for all people wishing to drive a motor vehicle. 

A. Passing B. necessity C. wishing D. to drive  

Question 22. ASEAN aims at promoting economic growth, regional peace as well as provide opportunities for its members. 

A. aims at B. economic growth C. provide D. its

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 

Question 23. Be a smart shopper, choose your seafood responsibly.  

A. tidy B. stupid C. soft D. weak

Question 24. Both universities speak highly of the programme of student exchange and hope to cooperate more in the future.  

A. resolve a conflict over B. express disapproval of  

C. find favor with D. voice opinions on 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word in each of the following questions. 

Question 25. Teenagers can become addicted to social networking if they can't control they spend online.  

A. indifferent to B. dependent on C. exhausted by D. hooked on

Question 26. His physical condition was not an impediment to his career as a violinist. He has won a lot of prize.  

A. ability B. advantage C. difficulty D. barrier 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. 

Question 27. I'm sure Luisa was very disappointed when she failed the exam.  

A. Luisa could have been very disappointed when she failed the exam.  

B. Luisa must be very disappointed when she failed the exam.  

C. Luisa must have been very disappointed when she failed the exam. 

D. Luisa may he very disappointed when she failed the exam. 

Question 28. The weather was very hot. The boys continued playing football in the schoolyard.  

A. Despite the weather was hot, the boys continued playing football in the schoolyard  

B. An spite of the hot weather, the boys continued playing football in the schoolyard  

C. Because the hot weather, the boys continued playing football in the schoolyard  

D. Because of the weather was hot, the boys continued playing football in the schoolyard.

Question 29. People think the Samba is the most popular dance in Brazil.  

A. It is thought that the Samba is among the most popular dances in Brazil.  

B. It is thought that the Samba was the most popular dance in Brazil. 

C. The Sumba is thought to be the most popular dance in Brazil.  

D. In Brawl the Samba is thought to be one of the most popular dances. 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. 

Question 30. However old and worn his clothes were, they look clean and of good quality  

A. His clothes looked clean and of good quality but they were old and worn.  

B. His clothes, though old and worn, looked clean and of good quality.  

C. He was fond of wearing such old and worn clothes because they were of good quality.  

D. No matter what good quality his clothes had, they looked old and worn.

Question 31. They didn't have breakfast. That's why they are hungry now.  

A. If they had had breakfast, they wouldn't have been hungry now  

B. If they had breakfast, they would have been hungry now.  

C. If they had had breakfast, they wouldn't be hungry now  

D. If they had breakfast, they wouldn't be hungry now. 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes the following exchanges. 

Question 32. Jack is going to London to study next week.  

- Betty: “______________” 

- Jack: "Thanks, I will write to you when I come to Landon."  

A. Have a go! B. Better luck next time!  

C. Have a nice trip! D. God bless you! 

Question 33. Two friends Diana and Anne are talking about their upcoming exams.  

Diana : "Our midterm exams will start next Tuesday, are you ready?  

Anne : “______________” 

A. Don't mention it! B. Thank you so much.  

C. m half ready. D. God save you.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to choose the word or phrase that best fits each other numbered blanks. 

  Since mobile phones’ explosion in popularity, many schools have resisted, or even banned, their use in the classroom. Yet an increasing (34) _______ of educators are now turning to cell phones in order to bolster student engagement and learning (35) _______ mobile-phone use should be limited to situations where the technology genuinely enhances instruction, the advanced functionality of today's cell phones makes them ideal for 2 1st century lessons. For example, many schools use the devices to poll students in class via text message.  Some schools encourage students to use their phones Cameras to snap pictures for use as inspiration in an classes. Others allow students to capture photographs of a post-lecture whiteboard. In seconds, kids car grab a detailed image of a teacher's notes on the board and email it themselves, resulting (36)  _______ incredible study tool.  

  On field (37) _______, students can participate in scavenger hunts by snapping pictures of items on a teacher-supplied list. Mobile phones can also help (38) _______ class discussion. Teachers might ask students to run a Google Search for information on a particular topic. An alternative to presenting the information via lecture or having students read it from a textbook, discussion-integrated Web searches are potentially more engaging, increasing the adds that students will retain the information.  

Question 34. A. number B. amount C. lot D. few

Question 35. A. Despite B. Therefore C. Because D. While 

Question 36. A. of B. from C. with D. in 

Question 37. A. vacation B. excursions C. journeys D. trips

Question 38. A. facilitate B. being facilitated C. facilitating D. facilitated

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on you answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. 

  The UK has a vast variety of higher education opportunities to offer students with over 100 universities offering various degree programs for students from the UK and around the world. In the UK about one-third of all students go on to some form of higher education and this number is well over 50% for students from Scotland. This makes competition for places very fierce and so it is advised to apply early for courses.  

 In the UK most undergraduate degree programs take three years to finish; however, the "sandwich course" is increasing in popularity, which is four years and involves one year in the workplace (normally in your third year). In Scotland, the courses are four years in length for undergraduate programs.  

  For graduate or masters programs, they are generally shorter in length and undertaken after graduation of your undergraduate program. Some professional degrees like medicine, veterinary, law, etc. have longer programs that can be as much as five years.  

From 2007, universities in the UK are allowed to charge students from the UK up to £3,070 per year (depending on the school and location). For students from the EU, you will also only have the pay the same fees as students from the UK, but international students from the of the world will have to pay the full school fees which will vary depending on the school. These fees for international students can range anywhere from £4,000 per year right up to £18,000 per year or more.  

Choosing the right school is dependent on a large number of factors such as:  

• Location of the school?  

• How much it costs?  

• Size of the school?  

• Access to home comforts? Place of worship, home foods?  

• Courses available?  

(Source: http://www.intemationalstudent.com/study_uk) 

Question 39. The word "fierce" in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to _________.  

A. intense B. aggressive C. challenging D. competitive

Question 40. The word "which" in paragraph 2 refers to _________. 

A. undergraduate B. popularity C. sandwich course D. degree programs

Question 41. Which of the following is mostly likely the reason why sandwich courses are increasingly popular?  

A. The students can do apprenticeship for their career in another country.  

B. The courses are shorter, helping international students save money.  

C. The courses help students gain practical work experience upon graduation. 

D. The courses are more affordable because students can earn their living.

Question 42. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?  

A. Half of the students at UK universities are always those from Scotland as stated by laws.  

B. School fees for international students at UK universities vary only according to school location.  

C. It takes about eight years for a student of medicine to complete a professional degree.  

D. A student from German has to pay £12,000 for his three-year course at a UK university.

Question 43. What can be the best title for the passage?  

A. UK Higher Education System: A Brief Overview  

B. UK Education in Comparison with the Scotland's 

C. UK Tertiary Schools: Freedom of Choice  

D. UK Higher Education System: Facts and Figures

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.

Nowadays, most people realize that it’s risky to use credit card numbers online. However, from time to time, we all use passwords and government ID numbers on the Internet. We think we are safe, but that may not be true! A new kind of attack is being used by dishonest people to steal IDs and credit card numbers from innocent web surfers. This new kind of attack is called “phishing.” 

  Phishing sounds the same as the word “fishing,” and it implies that a thief is trying to lure people into giving away valuable information. Like real fishermen, phishers use bait in the form of great online deals or services. For example, phishers might use fake emails and false websites to con people into revealing credit card numbers, account usernames, and passwords. They imitate well-known banks, online sellers, and credit card companies. Successful phishers may convince as many as five percent of the people they contact to respond and give away their personal financial information.  

  Is this really a big problem? Actually, tricking five percent of the online population is huge! Currently, more than 350 million people have access to the Internet, and seventy-five percent of those Internet users live in the wealthiest countries on Earth. It has been estimated that phishers send more than three billion scam messages each year. Even by tricking only five percent of the people, phishers can make a lot of money.  

  Since there is so much money to make through this kind of scam, it has caught the interest of more than just small-time crooks. Recently, police tracked down members of an organized phishing group in Eastern Europe, who had stolen hundreds of thousands of dollars from people online. The group created official-looking email messages requesting people to update their personal information at an international bank’s website. However, the link to the bank in the message actually sent people to the phishers’ fake website. To make matters worse, further investigation revealed that this group had connections to a major crime gang in Russia.  

  How can innocent people protect themselves? Above all, they have to learn to recognize email that has been sent by a phisher. Always be wary of any email with urgent requests for personal financial information. Phishers typically write upsetting or exciting, but fake, statements in their emails so that people will reply right away. Also, messages from phishers will not address recipients by name because they really don’t know who the recipients are yet. On the other hand, valid messages from your bank or other companies you normally deal with will typically include your personal name. 

Question 44. Which of the following could best serve as the topic of the passage?  

A. Innocent web surfers and online risks.  

B. Password and government ID numbers on the Internet  

C. Valuable information shared on the internet.  

D. A new type of internet attack.

Question 45. What does the word "lure" in paragraph 2 mostly means _________? 

A. attract B. entice C. avert D. obviate

Question 46. The word “they” in paragraph 2 refers to ___________. 

A. fake emails and false websites B. phisher  

C. credit card number D. people

Question 47. According to paragraph 3, why are only 5% of online users tricked a big problem?  

A. Because these 5% of internet users are the wealthiest people among online population.  

B. Because the number of scam messages sent to these users is more than three billion.  

C. Because the number of online population is myriad and three fourths of them live in rich nation.  

D. Because the personal information these people are tricked is financial.

Question 48. The word “revealed” in paragraph 4 mostly means ___________. 

A. determined B. concealed C. suppressed D. showed

Question 49. What suggestion is TRUE according to the last paragraph?  

A. Keep calm and be careful with urgent financial messages without your name.  

B. Be cautious with any email without the name sender  

C. Ask your bank or company if you receive any upsetting or exciting email.  

D. You shouldn't answer any message relate to your personal financial information.

Question 50. What can be inferred from the passage?  

A. It's not easy to track down phishers since their website are false  

B. Recognizing the differences between the true and Take messages will help innocent people protect their information. 

C. Phishers mostly steal personal information of the wealthiest people.  

D. Successful phishers may steal people's personal information from false international banks, online sellers and credit card companies.

-----------HẾT-----------

ĐÁP ÁN - TEST 11

1-A	2-D	3-B	4-C	5-C	6-A	7-B	8-B	9-B	10-D
11-B	12-C	13-D	14-D	15-A	16-A	17-C	18-D	19-D	20-C
21-B	22-C	23-B	24-B	25-B	26-C	27-C	28-B	29-C	30-B
31-A	32-C	33-C	34-A	35-D	36-D	37-D	38-A	39-A	40-C
41-C	42-C	43-A	44-D	45-B	46-B	47-C	48-D	49-A	50-B

PRACTICE TEST 12

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 

Question 1. She is a down-to-earth woman with no pretensions. 

A. ambitious  B. creative  C. idealistic  D. practical 

Question 2. For environment safety, we need to find ways to reduce emission of fumes and smoke of factory. 

A. leak  B. release  C. poison  D. pollutant 

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 3. He will apply for a job _________. 

A. when he is graduating from university B. until he graduated from university. 

C. after he had graduated from university D. as soon as he graduates from university. 

Question 4. By the end of this week, I _________ here for ten days 

A. stay  B. am staying C. will stay D. will have stayed 

Question 5. ________ we were lost, he offered to show us the way home. 

A. Thought  B. Thinking C. To think  D. Think 

Question 6. John is _________ only child in his family so his parents love him a lot. 

A. a  B. an  C. the  D. no article 

Question 7. It is imperative that this letter ________ immediately. 

A. were sent  B. sent  C. was sent  D. be sent 

Question 8. John ______ a respectful and obedient student. 

A. said to be B. is said  C. is said being D. is said to be 

Question 9. You may find you've got so many things to think about that it's difficult to _______.

A. see off  B. put off  C. turn off  D. switch off 

Question 10. She is a kind of woman who does not care much of work but generally ________ meals, movies or late nights at a club with her colleagues. 

A. supposes  B. discusses C. attends  D. socializes 

Question 11. She got up late and rushed to the bus stop. 

A. came into B. went leisurely C. went quickly D. dropped by 

Question 12. You can use my phone if yours _______. 

A. won't be worked B. won't work C. isn't worked D. doesn't work 

Question 13. These quick and easy _______ can be effective in the short term, but they have a cost. 

A. solve  B. solvable  C. solutions D. solvability 

Question 14. I took off my shoes before entering the room ________. 

A. in order to not dirty the floor  B. so that I not dirty the floor 

C. in order not dirtying the floor  D. so as not to dirty the floor 

Question 15. Although I was very tired ________. 

A. but I helped to clear up the mess after the party B. I helped to clear up the mess after the party 

C. and I tried to clear up the mess after the party D. I didn't help to clear up the mess after the party 

Question 16. Books in the home are a wonderful __________ of knowledge and pleasure. 

A. source  B. resource  C. list  D. sum 

Question 17. Reviewers describe books ________ “hard – to – put-down", or "hard – to – pick - again". 

A. as  B. for  C. into  D. in 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheer to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. 

Question 18. Last week Mark told me that he got very bored with his present job and is looking for a new one. 

A. got  B. new one  C. is looking D. told 

Question 19. The wave lengths of ultraviolet light are short than those of visible light but longer than those of X-rays. 

A. lengths  B. short  C. those  D. but 

Question 20. Each of the members of the group were made to write a report every week. 

A. to write  B. were  C. week  D. members 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word in each of the following questions. 

Question 21. Poverty in many African countries increases the likelihood that people poach animals to earn their living. 

A. chance  B. prospect C. possibility D. improbability 

Question 22. I don't believe in anything he says, he is unreliable. 

A. inaccurate B. unstable  C. trustworthy D. irresponsible 

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to choose the word or phrase that best fits each other numbered blanks. 

WHAT IS URBANIZATION?

Urbanization is a process (23) ________ populations move from rural to urban areas, enabling cities and towns to grow. It can also be termed as a progressive increase in the number of people living in towns and cities. It is highly influenced by the notion that cities and towns have achieved better economic, political, and social mileages compared (24) _______ the rural areas. Accordingly, urbanization is very common in developing and developed worlds as more and more people have the (25) _______ of moving closer to towns and cities to acquire “privileged” social and economic services. These (26) _______ social and economic advantages such as better education, health care, sanitation, housing, business opportunities, and transportation. A large majority of people move to cities and towns because they view rural areas as places with hardship and backward lifestyle. Therefore, as populations move to more developed areas, the immediate outcome is urbanization. This normally contributes to the development of land for use in commercial properties, transportation, and residential buildings. Eventually, these activities (27) _______ several urbanization issues. 

Question 23. A. in which B. by which C. of which  D. which 

Question 24. A. by  B. on  C. to  D. for 

Question 25. A. movement B. direction  C. tendency  D. progress 

Question 26. A. contain  B. consist  C. compose  D. include 

Question 27. A. rise  B. raise  C. stimulate  D. promote 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. 

Question 28. A. bride  B. fridge  C. bridge  D. driven 

Question 29. A. involves B. believes C. suggests  D. steals 

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on you answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. 

Jean spent her first few years in Hooper and her family moved to Otsego early in her life. She was only ten when her father died unexpectedly, leaving her mother to raise and support their family alone. Her mother soon went to work outside the home to provide for the family, and Jean, being one of the oldest, had to help care for her younger siblings. Although she had much responsibility at home, Jean thoroughly enjoyed school and was an excellent student. She went on to graduate 10th in her class at Otsego High School in 1953. While still in high school, Jean met a young man named Charles "Chuck" Holly, at a dance in Alamo; and they were quite taken with each other. 

Over the next few years, their love for each other blossomed and they were married on February 24, 1953, while Jean was still in school. At the time, Chuck was serving his country in the military, and had come home on leave to marry his sweetheart. Unfortunately, shortly thereafter, he was sent overseas to serve in Korea for the next fifteen months. 

Upon his discharge, the couple settled into married life together in the Plainwell, Otsego area. To help make ends meet, Jean went to work at the collection bureau in Kalamazoo for a while, before taking a job at the cheese company in Otsego. In 1964, Chuck and Jean were overjoyed with the birth of their son, Chuck, who brought great joy into their lives. Jean remembered how her mother was always gone so much working after her father died and she did not want that for her son, so she left her job to devote herself to the role of a mother. Question 30. After Jean's father passed away, her mother used to ________.

A. work outside the home  B. be a housewife 

C. support the family alone  D. work as a secretary 

Question 31. Which is not referred to Jean? 

A. She was a responsible girl. 

B. She never helped her mother with household chores. 

C. She often did well at school. 

D. She went to high school. 

Question 32. Jean's husband was a _________. 

A. teacher  B. dancer  C. soldier  D. servant 

Question 33. Jean ________. 

A. served in the military  B. lived in Korea for fifteen months 

C. had a daughter  D. got married when she was a student 

Question 34. Which is not TRUE about Jean? 

A. She disliked staying at home and taking care of her child 

B. She worked outside the home before she had a child 

C. She was very happy when she got a baby 

D. She quit her job to look after her baby. 

Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closet in meaning to each of the following questions. 

Question 35. People in Australia are so environmentally – friendly that they create the greenest country in the world. 

A. Australia is the greatest country in the world though the people are environmentally friendly. 

B. Australia is the greatest country in the world because the people are environmentally friendly 

C. Australia is the greatest country in the world while the people are environmentally friendly. 

D. Australia is the greatest country in the world if the people are environmentally friendly. 

Question 36. Most people get fewer colds in the summer than in the winter. 

A. The winter makes people have as many colds as the summer. 

B. A person is more likely to get colds in the winter than in the summer. 

C. People get colder and colder in the summer than in the winter. 

D. More people have to suffer from more colds in the summer than in winter. 

Question 37. “Stop drinking or you'll be ill." the doctor told me. 

A. I was ordered not to drink to recover from illness. 

B. I was warned against a drinking a lot of beer to stay healthy 

C. The doctor suggested drinking to treat my illness. 

D. The doctor advised me to give up drinking to avoid illness. 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes the following exchanges. 

Question 38. A custom officer is talking to a client at the airport. 

Officer: "Can I have your passport, please?" 

Client: “__________” 

A. No, I'll think it expired  B. Thank you for your help 

C. Yes, here you go  D. But I don't like it 

Question 39. Everlyne and Jonathan are talking to each other about the consequence of the Covid 19. 

Everlyne: "We have all experienced a great deal of disruption." 

Johnathan: “_________. Our life and work have been adversely affected." 

A. I couldn't agree more  B. You must be kidding 

C. Sure, everything is ready D. I don't think that's a good idea 

Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combine each pair of sentences in the following questions. 

Question 40. He was so angry with his boss. He quitted his job immediately. 

A. Angry with his boss, he quitted his job immediately. 

B. He quitted his job immediately, angry with his boss. 

C. Angry with his boss he is, he quitted his job immediately. 

D. He was so angry with his boss although quitting his job immediately. 

Question 41. He doesn't like going out. He doesn't invite any friends home. 

A. He either goes out or invites any friends home. 

B. He neither goes out nor invites any friends home. 

C. He not only goes out but also invites any friends home. 

D. He goes out but not invites any friends home. 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions. 

Question 42. A. biologist B. generally C. responsible  D. security 

Question 43. A. confide B. comfort  C. inflate  D. severe 

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on you answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. 

The Urban Gardener

Cities are home to skyscrapers and apartment buildings, and it's rare to find wide, open spaces within them. With limited space for parks and gardens, architects and city planners often find it challenging to incorporate greenery into neighbourhoods. 

One creative solution is to grow plants on unused areas like walls or rooftops. It's a popular idea, and now rooftop gardens and green walls have been spouting up in cities around the world. There are many benefits to having green spaces to the urban landscape. Adding gardens to rooftops or walls can create a pleasant environment - what was once a grey cement wall can become a colourful, blooming garden. The CaxiaForum art gallery in Madrid, Spain, is a famous example - one of its walls is covered with 15,000 plants from over 250 different species. 

In other cities, green walls are being used more functionally, to cover up construction sites and empty buildings and to prominently decorate the lobbies of office buildings. Using plants to cover walls and rooftops can also keep cities cooler in the summer. Buildings and roads absorb the sun's heat and hold it, causing a building or neighbourhood to stay warmer longer. Plants, on the other hand, provide an enormous amount of shade. There is evidence that growing a roof or wall garden can lower a building's energy costs. Many cities offer tax discounts to businesses with these features. In Ne City, public schools plant rooftop gardens that can reduce heating and cooling costs. 

In addition to saving the school money, teachers and parents love the gardens because of their educational value - it's a fun and healthy way for their kids to investigate the world around them. “For the children, it's exciting when you grow something edible," said Lauren Fontana, principal of a New York public school. 

These green spaces are also used to grow food. In recent years, rooftop gardens have slowly been included in the "local food movement". This is based on the concept that locally grown food reduces pollution since it does not have to be transported far. Vegetables are being grown in rooftop gardens by schools, churches, neighbourhoods and even restaurants. Chef Rick Bayless serves “Rooftop S his restaurant in Chicago, USA, using only ingredients grown in his rooftop garden. Rooftop gardens and green walls may require a bit more effort to grow and maintain. However, hard work always brings rewards, and with green spaces, the rewards are plentiful. 

Question 44. What is this passage mainly about? 

A. gardens in Madrid, New York, and Chicago B. people growing plants on roofs and walls 

C. private gardens in the city's unused spaces D. how to grow your own food in the city 

Question 45. According to the passage, people _________ as cities have little space for gardens. 

A. grow plants in their apartments  B. go to the countryside at the weekends 

C. paint their walls and roofs green D. grow trees and flowers on top of roofs 

Question 46. Why is the green wall in Madrid mentioned in the passage? 

A. It is the most expensive green wall in the world. 

B. It is located on the side of a government building. 

C. It is a famous example of a green wall. 

D. It was made to provide jobs for homeless people. 

Question 47. Which is NOT mentioned as a benefit of a rooftop garden? 

A. It becomes a park that the community can use. 

B. Having one might mean paying less taxes. 

C. Children can use it to learn about the environment. 

D. Growing plants on a roof keeps buildings cooler. 

Question 48. Because food can now be grown in cities, _______. 

A. the food at expensive restaurants is cheaper 

B. governments are making many rules about city gardens 

C. farmers in the countryside are moving to the city 

D. there's less pollution caused by transporting food 

Question 49. The word "it" in paragraph 5 refers to _______. 

A. a rooftop garden  B. the food in general

C. locally grown food  D. green space 

Question 50. Why did Chef Bayless name his dish "Rooftop Salsa"? 

A. He got the idea while cooking on his rooftop. 

B. He buys the salsa from other rooftop gardeners. 

C. It is made from food grown in his rooftop garden. 

D. The money earned from the dish is given to rooftop gardeners. 

----------------HẾT--------------

ĐÁP ÁN – TEST 12

1-D	2-B	3-D	4-D	5-B	6-C	7-D	8-D	9-D	10-D
11-C	12-D	13-C	14-D	15-B	16-A	17-A	18-C	19-B	20-B
21-D	22-C	23-A	24-C	25-C	26-D	27-B	28-A	29-C	30-B
31-B	32-C	33-D	34-A	35-B	36-B	37-D	38-C	39-A	40-C
41-B	42-B	43-B	44-B	45-D	46-C	47-A	48-D	49-C	50-C

PRACTICE TEST 13

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 

Question 1. New Zealand was the first country _________ women to vote. 

A. that give  B. to give  C. gave  D. giving 

Question 2. He got a bad mark. He ________ have prepared the lesson carefully. 

A. shouldn't  B. wouldn't  C. should  D. would 

Question 3. _______ they do not have much experience, their applications have been approved. 

A. So that  B. Although  C. Because  D. As soon as

Question 4. The accused ________ guilty to all charges 

A. confessed  B. pleaded  C. said  D. admitted 

Question 5. The newspaper did not mention the _______ of the damage caused by the fire 

A. amount  B. range  C. quality  D. extent 

Question 6. If I _________ to the store later, I'll get you some milk. 

A. was going  B. went  C. go  D. will go 

Question 7. Scientist are now beginning to conduct experiments on _______ trigger different sorts of health risks. 

A. noise pollution can  B. how noise pollution 

C. how noise pollution can  D. that noise pollution 

Question 8. Sportsmen ________ their political differences on the sports field. 

A. put aside  B. take apart  C. take place  D. keep apart 

Question 9. It is ________ funniest book that I have ever read. 

A. an  B. the  C. a  D. X 

Question 10. With greatly increased workloads, everyone is ________ pressure now 

A. out of  B. above  C. under  D. upon 

Question 11. After you _______ your exam, I will take you out to eat. Is it OK? 

A. were finishing B. finished  C. have finished  D. are finishing 

Question 12. I've never really enjoyed going to the ballet of the opera; they're not really my _________.

A. cup of tea  B. biscuit  C. sweets and candy D. piece of cake 

Question 13. The phone suddenly _______ while Joanna ________ the housework. 

A. rang - did B. was ringing - did C. was ringing - was doing D. rang - was doing 

Question 14. We hung coloured lights around the room for ________.

A. decorative  B. decoration  C. decorate  D. decorator 

Question 15. It is important that he _________ into a good university. 

A. gets  B. getting  C. get  D. got 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. 

Question 16. It was an interested book that I bought at Ngoc Binh Store last Sunday 

A. interested  B. last Sunday  C. at  D. that 

Question 17. The world is becoming more industrialized and the number of animal species that have become extinct have increased. 

A. extinct  B. industrialized  C. species  D. have 

Question 18. Dams are used to control flooding, provide water for irrigation, and generating electricity for the surrounding area. 

A. to control flooding  B. generating C. surrounding area  D. irrigation 

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 

Question 19. The Association of Southeast Asian Nations, or ASEAN, was established on 8 August 1967 in Bangkok, Thailand, with Indonesia, Malaysia, Philippines, Singapore and Thailand, joining hands initially. 

A. officially  B. basically  C. firstly  D. lastly 

Question 20. If the examiner can't make sense of what your essay is about, you'll get the low mark. 

A. communicate B. estimate  C. declare  D. understand 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. 

Question 21. A. climate B. greenhouse C. footprint D. upset 

Question 22. A. infectious B. atmosphere C. chemical  D. consequence 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. 

Question 23. My father is less friendly than my mother. 

A. My father is not as friendly as my mother. B. My father is more friendly than my mother. 

C. My mother is not as friendly as my father. D. My mother is less friendly than my father. 

Question 24. “I bought these books last week”. He said 

A. He said he had bought these books last week. 

B. He said he had bought those books the week before. 

C. He said he bought these books last week. 

D. He said he bought these books the week before. 

Question 25. She probably buys this house next week. 

A. She doesn't have to buy this house next week. 

B. She may buy this house next week. 

C. She should buy next house next week. 

D. She must buy this house next week. 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. 

Question 26. You can stay in the flat for free. You pay the bills. 

A. Without the bills paid, you can stay in the free flat. 

B. Unless the flat is free of bills, you cannot stay in it. 

C. Whether you pay the bills or stay in the flat, it is free. 

D. Provided you pay the bills, you can stay in the flat for free. 

Question 27. It is such an interesting book. I have read it three times 

A. Such was the interesting book that I have read it three times. 

B. Such interesting was book that I have read it three times. 

C. Should the book be interesting, I have read it three times. 

D. Only if it is an interesting book have I read it three times. 

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. 

In Africa, people celebrate with joy the birth of a new baby. The Pygmies would sing a birth-song to the child. In Kenya, the mother takes the baby strapped to her back into the thorn enclosure where the cattle are kept. There, her husband and the village elders wait to give the child his or her name. 

In West Africa, after the baby is eight days old, the mother takes the baby for its first walk in the big, wide world, and friends and family are invited to meet the new baby. In various African nations, they hold initiation ceremonies for groups of children instead of birthdays. When children reach a certain designated age, they learn the laws, beliefs, customs, songs and dances of their tribes. Some African tribes consider that children from nine to twelve are ready to be initiated into the grown up world. They may have to carry out several tests. 

Maasai boys around thirteen years old to seventeen undergo a two-stage initiation. The first stage lasts about three months. The boys leave their parents' homes, paint their bodies white, and are taught how to become young warriors. At the end of this stage, they have their heads shaved and they are also circumcised. At the second stage, the young warriors grow their hair long and live in a camp called a “manyatta” where they practice hunting the wild animals that might attack the Maasai herds. This stage may last a few years. When they will marry and become owners of large cattle herds like their fathers. The girls are initiated when they are fourteen or fifteen. They are taught by the older women about the duties of marriage and how to care for babies. Soon after that they are married and lead a life similar to that of their mothers. 

Question 28. What does the word "they" in paragraph 3 refer to? 

A. the young warriors  B. the cattle owners 

C. the Maasai herds  D. the wild animals 

Question 29. The word "undergo" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ________.

A. explore  B. participate in C. experience  D. commence 

Question 30. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 2? 

A. Children have to learn their tribes' cultures and traditions when they are old enough. 

B. An eight-day-old child will be taken for the first walk by his or her mother. 

C. Children are initiated for a mature life in the presence of their friends and family. 

D. Children have to overcome a few trials to enter the grown-up world. 

Question 31. Where do people in Kenya give the name to the child? 

A. at their house  B. at the village church 

C. on the cattle farm  D. near the thorn fence 

Question 32. What does the passage mainly discuss? 

A. Birthday ceremonies for children in Africa 

B. Activities in a birth celebration 

C. Traditions of Maasai people when having a new baby 

D. Celebrations in Africa 

Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently from that of the others. 

Question 33. A. worked  B. trained  C. stopped D. missed 

Question 34. A. dynasty  B. royal  C. intact D. citadel

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges. 

Question 35. Linda and Peter are talking about safe driving. 

~ Linda: "I think drink-driving should be severely punished.” 

~ Peter"............ It may cause accidents or even deaths.” 

A. I don't understand what you mean.  B. I don't think so. 

C. I absolutely agree with you.  D. You must be kidding. 

Question 36. A porter is talking to Mary in the hotel lobby. 

~ Porter: “May I help you with your suitcase?" 

~Mary: ".........." 

A. You're welcome. B. What a shame! C. Yes, please.  D. Me too. 

Read the following passage and blacken the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to the following questions. 

Foot racing is a popular activity in the United States. It is seen not only as a competitive sport but also as a way to exercise, to enjoy the camaraderie of like-minded people, and to donate money to a good cause. Though serious runners may spend months training to compete, other runners and walkers might not train at all. Those not competing to win might run in an effort to beat their own time or simply to enjoy the fun and exercise. People of all ages, from those of less than one year (who may be pushed in strollers) to those in their eighties, enter into this sport. The races are held on city streets, on college campuses, through parks, and in suburban areas, and they are commonly 5 to 10 kilometers in length. 

The largest foot race in the world is the 12-kilometer Bay to Breakers race that is held in San Francisco every spring. This race begins on the east side of the city near San Francisco Bay and ends on the west side at the Pacific Ocean. There may be 80,000 or more people running in this race through the streets and hills of San Francisco. In the front are the serious runners who compete to win and who might finish in as little as 34 minutes. Behind them are the thousands 20 who take several hours to finish. In the back of the race are those who dress in costumes and come just for fun. One year there was a group of men who dressed like Elvis Presley, and another group consisted of firefighters who were tied together in a long line and who were carrying a fire hose. There was even a bridal party, in which the bride was dressed in a long white gown and the groom wore a tuxedo. The bride and groom threw flowers to bystanders, and they were actually married at some point along the route. 

Question 37. The phrase "to a good cause" could be best replaced by which of the following? 

A. for an award  B. for a good purpose 

C. to reward the winner  D. to protect a wise investment 

Question 38. Which of the following best describes the organization of this passage? 

A. cause and result  B. specific to general 

C. chronological order  D. statement and example 

Question 39. The word "activity” in the first paragraph is most similar to which of the following? 

A. motion  B. pursuit  C. expectation  D. pilgrimage 

Question 40. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in this passage? 

A. Some runners were serious about winning. 

B. Some runners were ready to put out a fire. 

C. Some runners looked like Elvis Presley. 

D. Some runners were participating in a wedding. 

Question 41. Which of the following is NOT implied by the author? 

A. Entering a race is a way to give support to an organization. 

B. Running is a good way to strengthen the heart. 

C. Foot races appeal to a variety of people. 

D. Walkers can compete for prizes. 

Question 42. The word “bystander” refers to ________. 

A. a participant B. a judge  C. a spectator  D. a walker 

Question 43. The main purpose of this passage is to _________.

A. give reasons for the popularity of the foot races 

B. describe a popular activity 

C. encourage people to exercise 

D. make fun of runners in costume 

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 

Question 44. Sorry, I can't come to your party. I am snowed under with work at the moment. 

A. relaxed about B. interested in  C. busy with  D. free from 

Question 45. He was imprisoned because he revealed secrets to the enemies. 

A. concealed  B. betrayed  C. declared  D. disowned

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks. 

The invention of the mobile phone has undoubtedly revolutionized the way people communicate and influenced every aspect of our lives. The issue is whether this technological innovation has (46) ______ more harm than good. In order to answer the question, we must first turn to the types of consumers. Presumably, most parents (47)________are always worrying about their children's safety buy mobile phones for them to track their whereabouts. We can also assume that most teenagers want mobile phones to avoid missing out on social contact. In this context, the advantages are clear. (48) _______, we cannot deny the fact that text messages have been used by bullies to intimidate fellow students. There is also (49) ________ evidence that texting has affected literacy skills. 

The widespread use of mobile phone has, out of question, affected adult consumers too. What employee, on the way home from work, would be reluctant to answer a call from their boss? Apparently, only 18% of us. according to a survey, are willing to switch off our mobile phones once we've left the office. 

Admittedly, mobile phones can be intrusive but there are obvious benefits to possessing one. Personally speaking, they are invaluable when it comes to making social or business arrangements at short (50) _______. They also provide their owners with a sense of security in emergency situations. 

Question 46. A. brought B. played  C. done  D. made 

Question 47. A. whom  B. what  C. which  D. who 

Question 48. A. Moreover  B. Therefore  C. However  D. So that 

Question 49. A. arguable  B. doubtless  C. unhesitating D. indisputable 

Question 50. A. warning B. time  C. term  D. notice 

-----------HẾT-----------

ĐÁP ÁN - TEST 13

1-B	2-C	3-B	4-B	5-D	6-C	7-C	8-A	9-B	10-C
11-C	12-A	13-D	14-B	15-C	16-A	17-D	18-B	19-C	20-D
21-D	22-A	23-A	24-B	25-B	26-D	27-A	28-A	29-C	30-C
31-C	32-A	33-B	34-C	35-C	36-C	37-B	38-D	39-A	40-B
41-B	42-C	43-B	44-D	45-A	46-C	47-D	48-C	49-D	50-D

PRACTICE TEST 14

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. 

Question 1: You don't try to work hard. You will fail in the exam. 

A. Unless you try to work hard, you will fail in the exam. 

B. Unless you don't try to work hard, you will fail in the exam. 

C. Unless you try to work hard, you won't fail in the exam. 

D. Unless do you try to work hard, you will fail in the exam. 

Question 2: Marry loved her stuffed animal when she was young. She couldn't sleep without it. 

A. When Marry was young, she loved her stuffed animal so much that she couldn't sleep without it. 

B. When Marry was young, she loved her stuffed animal so as not to sleep with it. 

C. As Marry couldn't sleep without her stuffed animal when she was young, she loved it. 

D. When Marry was young, she loved her stuffed animal though she couldn't sleep without it. 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. 

Question 3: Fifty minutes are the maximum length of time allotted for the exam. 

A. maximum  B. length  C. are  D. allotted 

Question 4: For its establishment, ASEAN Tourism Association has played an important role in promoting and developing ASEAN Tourism services. 

A. Tourism Association B. played 

C. For its  D. in promoting and developing 

Question 5: Having been identified the causes of global warming, scientists have worked out some solutions to reduce its effects. 

A. worked out  B. Having been identified  C. to reduce D. of 

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. 

If you want to give someone the nod in Bulgaria, you have to nod your head to say “no” and shake it to say “yes” – the exact opposite of what we do! In Belgium, pointing with your index finger or snapping your fingers at someone is very rude. 

In France, you shouldn't rest your feet on tables or chairs. Speaking to someone with your hands in your pockets will only make matters worse. In the Middle East, you should never show the soles of your feet or shoes to others as it will be seen as a grave insult. When eating, only use your right hand because they use their left hands when going to the bathroom. 

In Bangladesh, the 'thumbs-up' is a rude sign. In Myanmar, people greet each other by clapping, and in India, whistling in public is considered rude. 

In Japan, you should not blow your nose in public, but you can burp at the end of a meal to show that you have enjoyed it. The 'OK' sign (thumb and index finger forming a circle) means "everything is good” in the West, but in China it means nothing or zero. In Japan, it means money, and in the Middle East, it is a rude gesture. 

Question 6: In the Middle East, people do not use their left hands for eating because they use their left hands _______.

A. to put in their pockets  B. when preparing the meal 

C. when going to the bathroom  D. to clean their tables and chairs 

Question 7: It is mentioned in the passage that many gestures _________. 

A. are not used to communicate our feelings 

B. may mean different things in different countries 

C. can be used to greet each other in public 

D. are used in greeting among men and women 

Question 8: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage? 

A. In Belgium, snapping your fingers at someone is very rude. 

B. In France, people shouldn't rest their feet on tables. 

C. In Myanmar, people greet each other by clapping 

D. In China, the 'OK'sign means money 

Question 9: The word "others” in paragraph 3 refers to _________. 

A. other people  B. other shoes  C. other soles  D. other feet 

Question 10: People nod their head to say no in _________. 

A. Bulgaria  B. Belgium  C. France  D. Japan 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions. 

Question 11: A. cooked  B. watched C. stopped  D. wicked 

Question 12: A. spirit  B. title  C. describe  D. final 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 

Question 13: The U23 Vietnamese football team's performance has garnered _______ from around the world and shown promise for Vietnam's soccer horizon. 

A. attentive  B. attentively C. attend  D. attention 

Question 14: The joke would not be funny if it _________ into French. 

A. be translated B. has been translated C. was be translated D. were translated 

Question 15: Paul is a very _________ character, he is never relaxed with strangers. 

A. self-conscious B. self-satisfied C. self-directed D. self-confident 

Question 16: Mary's lawyer advised her _________ anything further about the accident. 

A. not saying B. telling  C. not to say D. not tell 

Question 17: Many of the pictures _________ from outer space are presently on display in the public library 

A. sending  B. sent  C. having sent D. were sent 

Question 18: Although he is my friend, I find it hard to _________ his selfishness 

A. catch up with B. put up with C. keep up with D. come down with 

Question 19: John congratulated us _________ our exam with high marks. 

A. on pass  B. for passing C. to pass  D. on passing 

Question 20: We expected him at eight, but he finally __________ at midnight. 

A. turned in  B. came off  C. came to  D. turned up 

Question 21: Everybody is tired of watching the same comercials on TV every night, ________? 

A. aren't they B. are they  C. haven't they D. don't they 

Question 22: The authorities _________ actions to stop illegal purchase of wild animals and their associated products effectively. However, they didn't do so. 

A. must have taken B. had to take C. needed have taken D. should have taken 

Question 23: He gave me his personal _________ that his draft would be ready by Friday. 

A. accordance B. assurance C. endurance  D. insurance 

Question 24: Vietnam ________ announcing a nationwide lockdown to fight COVID-19 on April 1, 2020. 

A. start  B. started  C. will start  D. has started 

Question 25: The 1^st week of classes at university is a little ________ because so many students get lost, change classes or go to the wrong place. 

A. uncontrolled B. chaotic  C. arranged  D. notorious 

Question 26: After he ________ his work, he went straight home. 

A. would finish B. has finished C. has been finishing D. had finished 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges. 

Question 27: A: My speaking skill is getting worse. 

                       B: _________, I would speak English in class more regularly. 

A. Don't ask me B. If I were you  C. No problem D. Forgive 

Question 28: Linda is thanking Daniel for his birthday present. 

Linda: "Thanks for the book. I've been looking it for months." Daniel: "_____________”

A. You can say that again  B. I'm glad you like it. 

C. I like reading books.  D. Thank you for looking for it. 

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. 

How is the news different from entertainment? Most people would answer that news is real but entertainment is fiction. However, if we think more carefully about the news, it becomes clear that the news is not always real. The news does not show us all the events of the day, but stories from a small number of chosen events. The creation of news stories is subject to specific constraints, much like the creation of works of fiction. There are many constraints, but three of the most important ones are: commercialism, story formulas, and sources. Newspapers, radio, and TV stations are businesses, all of which are rivals for audiences and advertising revenue. The amount of time that the average TV station spends on news broadcasts has grown steadily over the last fifty years - largely because news is relatively cheap to produce, yet sells plenty of advertising. Some news broadcasts are themselves becoming advertisements. For example, during one week in 1996 when the American CBS network was airing a movie about the sinking of the Titanic, CBS news ran nine stories about that event (which had happened 84 years before). The ABC network is owned by Disney Studios, and frequently runs news stories about Mickey Mouse. Furthermore, the profit motive drives news organizations to pay more attention to stories likely to generate a large audience, and to shy away from stories that may be important but dull. This pressure to be entertaining has produced shorter, simpler stories: more focus on celebrities than people of substance, more focus on gossip than on news, and more focus on dramatic events than on nuanced issues. 

As busy people under relentless pressure to produce, journalists cannot spend days agonizing over the best way to present stories. Instead, they depend upon certain story formulas, which they can reuse again and again. One example is known as the inverted pyramid. In this formula, the journalist puts the most important information at the beginning of the story, than adds the next most important, and so on. The inverted pyramid originates from the age of the telegraph, the idea being that if the line went dead halfway through the story, the journalist would know that the most crucial information had at least been relayed. Modern journalists still value the formula for a similar reason. Their editors will cut stories if they are too long. Another formula involves reducing a complicated story into a simple conflict. The best example is "horse race" election coverage. Thorough explication of the issues and the candidates' views is forbiddingly complex. Journalists therefore concentrate more on who is winning in the opinion polls, and whether the underdog can catch up in the numbers than on politicians' campaign goals. 

Sources are another constraint on what journalists cover and how they cover it. The dominant sources for news are public information officers in businesses and government offices. The majority of such officers try to establish themselves as experts who are qualified to feed information to journalists. How do journalists know who is an expert? In general, they don't. They use sources not on the basis of actual expertise, but on the appearance of expertise and the willingness to share it. All the major news organizations use some of the same sources (many of them anonymous), so the same types of stories always receive attention. Over time, the journalists may even become close friends with their sources, and they stop searching for alternative points of view. The result tends to be narrow, homogenized coverage of the same kind. 

Question 29: It can be inferred from paragraph 1 that the author of the passage thinks __________.

A. that most people don't realize how different news is from reality 

B. that watching or reading the news is extremely boring 

C. that most news stories are false 

D. that most people don't pay enough attention to the news 

Question 30: According to paragraph 2, which of the following is true? 

A. One effect of commercialism is news stories with more complex content. 

B. Some news broadcasts are shown without advertisements. 

C. More time is devoted to news on TV now than 50 years ago. 

D. The ABC network owns Disney Studios. 

Question 31: Why does the author mention Mickey Mouse in paragraph 2? 

A. To give an example of news content that is not serious 

B. To indicate that ABC shows entertaining news stories 

C. To give an example of news stories that are also advertisements 

D. To contrast ABC's style with that of CBS 

Question 32: According to paragraph 3, an advantage of the inverted pyramid formula for journalists is that _________.

A. if a story is cut by the editor, only the less crucial information will be lost 

B. it makes a story more likely to be cut by the editor 

C. it makes a story more likely to attract the attention of the audience 

D. it makes a story simpler and easier to understand 

Question 33: The word relayed in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to __________.

A. Known  B. chosen  C. gathered  D. sent 

Question 34: According to the passage, which of the following tends to lead to homogenized coverage? 

A. Journalists' use of experts as sources 

B. Journalists' search for alternative points of view 

C. Journalists' using government officials as sources 

D. Journalists' becoming friends with their sources 

Question 35: The word them in paragraph 4 refers to __________.

A. journalists  B. organizations C. sources  D. experts 

Question 36: Which of the following best expresses the essential information in the highlighted sentences "Thorough explication of the issues .... than on politicians' campaign goals." in the passage? 

A. Journalists focus on poll numbers instead of campaign issues because it is easier. 

B. Journalists are more interested in issues and candidates' views, but viewers are more interested in who is winning. 

C. During an election campaign, journalists mainly concentrate on "horse race" coverage. 

D. Candidates' views and how they are explained by journalists can have a big effect on poll numbers. 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 

Question 37: He drives me to the edge because he never stops talking. 

A. steers me  B. irritates me  C. moves me  D. frightens me 

Question 38: We should find ways to improve our products in terms of quality and packaging. 

A. for considering aspects B. in spite of C. with a view to D. in regard to 

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks. 

All living things require energy to do the work necessary for survival and reproduction. But what is energy? Energy is simply the ability to do work, (39) ________. work is done when a force moves an object. Let's consider your own needs for a moment. You need energy to turn on and turn off your computer. You need energy to (40) _______ of bed in the morning. And, yes, you need energy to reproduce. So where does energy come from and how do we use it? On Earth, energy ultimately comes from the sun. Plants use the sun's energy to make sugar. Organisms, in turn, use sugar as a (41) ________ of energy to do work. Plants use energy from sunlight to make sugar and oxygen from carbon dioxide and water. The process by which carbon dioxide and water are (42) _______ to sugar and oxygen using sunlight is referred to as photosynthesis. This is an endergonic reaction, meaning energy is required by the reaction. Specifically, energy is required to put the carbon dioxide and the water molecules together to form sugar. Sun (43) _______ the energy needed to drive photosynthesis, and some of the energy used to make the sugar is stored in the sugar molecule. 

Question 39: A. which B. where C. that  D. why 

Question 40: A. get up B. wake out C. get out  D. wake up 

Question 41: A. degree B. scale C. source  D. format 

Question 42: A. purchased B. exchanged C. removed  D. converted 

Question 43: A. absorbs B. transfers C. consumes  D. provides 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 

Question 44: The government is encouraging everyone to save water by not washing their cars. 

A. conserve  B. avoid  C. collect  D. waste 

Question 45: Don't tease her, she is fragile. 

A. breakable  B. angry  C. strong  D. pissed off 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questionsor indicate the correct answer to each of them. 

Question 46: He decided not to go to university and went to work in a restaurant. 

A. Despite of going to university he went to work in a restaurant. 

B. Instead of going to university, he go to work in a restaurant. 

C. He decided to go to work in a restaurant because he liked it. 

D. He went to work in a restaurant instead of going to university. 

Question 47: The secret to success is hard work. 

A. Working hard ensures success.  B. If you keep your work secret, you will succeed. 

C. One cannot succeed if he has secrets. D. One must work hard to keep secrets. 

Question 48: Rather than disturb the meeting, I left without saying goodbye. 

A. I left without saying goodbye as I didn't want to disturb the meeting. 

B. I disturbed the meeting because I said goodbye. 

C. I would rather disturb the meeting than leave without saying goodbye. 

D. The meeting was disturbed as I left saying goodbye. 

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. 

Question 49: A. familiar  B. arrogant  C. impatient  D. uncertain 

Question 50: A. arrangement B. disappear C. opponent D. contractual 

--------------HẾT---------------

ĐÁP ÁN – TEST 14

1-A	2-A	3-C	4-C	5-B	6-C	7-B	8-D	9-A	10-A
11-D	12-A	13-D	14-D	15-A	16-C	17-B	18-B	19-D	20-D
21-A	22-D	23-B	24-B	25-B	26-D	27-B	28-B	29-A	30-C
31-C	32-A	33-D	34-D	35-C	36-A	37-B	38-D	39-B	40-C
41-C	42-D	43-D	44-D	45-C	46-D	47-A	48-A	49-B	50-B

PRACTICE TEST 15

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheer to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. 

Question 1. The guest of honors, along with his wife and children, were sitting at the first table when we had a party yesterday. 

A. his wife  B. were  C. at  D. when 

Question 2. To show the different ideas about love and marriage, a survey was conducted in American, Chinese and Indian students. 

A. To show  B. about  C. a survey  D. conducted in 

Question 3. We received a SOS signal appearing right here in this city, please connect the support team there immediately. 

A. a SOS  B. appearing  C. connect  D. there 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word in each of the following questions. 

Question 4. People have used coal and oil to generate electricity for a long time. 

A. make  B. prevent  C. create  D. invent 

Question 5. School uniform is compulsory in most of Vietnamese schools. 

A. paid  B. divided  C. depended D. required 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. 

Question 6. Farmers depend on meteorologists. They need meteorologists' accurate forecasts for successful agricultural planning. 

A. Due to meteorologists' accurate forecasts, farmers depend on them for successful agricultural planning. 

B. Farmers depend on meteorologists who need their accurate forecasts for successful agricultural planning. 

C. Farmers depend on meteorologists, whose accurate forecasts they need for successful agricultural planning.

D. Farmers need meteorologists' accurate forecasts for successful agricultural planning and so they depend on you. 

Question 7. As long as you stay calm, you have nothing to fear from the talk show. 

A. Provided you do not get nervous, the talk show won't go badly for you. 

B. You have remained calm for a long time in spite of your fear of the talk show. 

C. Talk shows are only intimidating for people who are not extremely calm. 

D. Even if you are afraid of the talk show, it is important not to express it. 

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on you answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. 

SCIENTIFIC DISCOVERIES

A satellite is best understood as a projectile, or an object that has only one force acting on gravity. Technically speaking, anything that crosses the Karman Line at an altitude of kilometers (62 miles) is considered in space. However, a satellite needs to be going fast — at least 8 km (5 miles) a second - to stop from falling back down to Earth immediately. 

If a satellite is traveling fast enough, it will perpetually "fall" toward Earth, but the Earth's curvature means that the satellite will fall around our planet instead of crashing back on the surface. Satellites that travel closer to Earth are at risk of falling because the drag of atmospheric molecules will slow the satellites down. Those that orbit farther away from Earth have fewer molecules to contend with. 

There are several accepted "zones" of orbits around the Earth. One is called low-Earth-orbit, which extends from about 160 to 2,000 km (about 100 to 1,250 miles). This is the zone where the ISS orbits and where the space shuttle used to do its work. In fact, all human missions except for the Apollo flights to the moon took place in this zone. Most satellites also work in this zone. 

Geostationary or geosynchronous orbit is the best spot for communications satellites to use, however. This is a zone above Earth's equator at an altitude of 35,786 km (22,236 mi). At this altitude, the rate of "fall" around the Earth is about the same as Earth's rotation, which allows the satellite to stay above the same spot on Earth almost constantly. The satellite thus keeps a perpetual connection with a fixed antenna on the ground, allowing for reliable communications. When geostationary satellites reach the end of their life, protocol dictates they're moved out of the way for a new satellite to take their place. That's because there is only so much room, or so many "slots" in that orbit, to allow the satellites to operate without interference. 

While some satellites are best used around the equator, others are better suited to more polar orbits - those that circle the Earth from pole to pole so that their coverage zones include the north and south poles. Examples of polar-orbiting satellites include weather satellites and reconnaissance satellites. 

(Source: https://www.space.com/24839-satellites.html) 

Question 8. Which of the following best serves as the title for the passage? 

A. Parts of a satellite 

B. Moons around other worlds 

C. What keeps a satellite from falling to Earth? 

D. What stops a satellite from crashing into another satellite? 

Question 9. Which of the following best summaries paragraph 5? 

A. All satellites circle the Earth from pole to pole. 

B. Orbit of satellites depends on their coverage zones and using purpose. 

C. Satellites are best used around the equator. 

D. Satellites include weather satellites and reconnaissance satellites. 

Question 10. Which of the following is mentioned in paragraph 4 as an element that makes a satellite stay above the same spot on Earth? 

A. Geostationary or geosynchronous orbit B. Earth's rotation 

C. The zone above Earth's equator D. The rate of "fall" around the Earth 

Question 11. Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage? 

A. satellite needs to be going fast - at least 8 km (5 miles) a second. 

B. Satellites that travel closer to Earth contend with drag of more atmospheric molecules. 

C. Satellites keep a perpetual connection with a fixed antenna on the ground 

D. The Apollo flights to the moon took place in low-Earth-orbit, which extends from about 160 to 2,000 km (about 100 to 1,250 miles). 

Question 12. The word "perpetually" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _________. 

A. gradually B. quickly  C. technically D. continuously 

Question 13. According to paragraph 4, which of the following is the reason why satellites move out of the way? 

A. They takes too much room. B. There are not enough "slots" for them. 

C. They fail to operate without interference. D. They reaches the end of their life. 

Question 14. The word "Those" in paragraph 2 refers to _________.

A. planet  B. surfaces  C. satellites D. molecules 

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. 

The British are particular about timings and being late is frowned upon, but being on time is a complicated matter because in some situations, being a few minutes early on others means being exactly on time and in some instances, it is completely acceptable to arrive 10 minutes to a few hours later than the stated time. This can be a minefield for someone who is new to the UK, so here are some basic rules that will help you get your timing right whatever the situation. 

In formal meetings, such as job interviews, you should arrive at least five minutes before your meeting. This will give you time to compose yourself before your big meeting. In the UK, arriving late for a formal meeting is seen as unprofessional and will reflect badly on you. If you are running late, ring your host to let them know you will be late. On arrival, apologize sincerely and offer a reason for your lateness, such as you got lost or the train was delayed. It will help you redeem yourself. However, if you are late because you set off later than you should have, it's wise to keep that to yourself! 

If you have been invited to a dinner party, you should arrive exactly on time as the host will have planned when they will serve the food. You will find that your host will serve their guests a pre-dinner drink, so that gives you a bit of wiggle room, but if you are running later than 10 minutes, you should ring your host and let them know how late you might be. That way they can decide whether to go ahead and serve the other guests. When you arrive you should offer the host and the other guests your apology for being late. 

(Source: https://www.oxfordinternationalenglish.com/) 

Question 15. What is the author's main purpose in the passage? 

A. To prove that the British are strict about timings 

B. To explain what readers should do if they are late in the UK 

C. To persuade readers to be on time in any situation in the UK 

D. To provide readers some primary regulations so that they will be on time in the UK 

Question 16. According to the second paragraph, what kind of reasons should you offer come late for a job interview? 

A. careless B. subjective C. objective D. neglectful 

Question 17. The word "compose" in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to ________. 

A. keep calm B. compile C. create  D. comprise 

Question 18. What is the best advice when you have an appointment in the UK? 

A. In any situation, you should call to inform your lateness and offer an apology later. 

B. Whenever you have an appointment, you should come at least five minutes before your meeting. 

C. You should depend on each situation or meeting to behave correctly. 

D. You should ask your host or employer whether you can come late. 

Question 19. What does the word "That way" in the last paragraph refer to? 

A. You ring your host and let them know how late you might be. 

B. You arrive exactly on time for a dinner party. 

C. You will have a bit of wiggle room. 

D. Your host will serve their guests a pre-dinner drink. 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 

Question 20. She decided to remain celibate and devote her life to helping the homeless and orphans. 

A. married  B. separated C. single  D. divorced 

Question 21. Both universities speak highly of the programme of student exchange and hope to cooperate more in the future. 

A. voice opinions on  B. find favor with 

C. express disapproval of  D. resolve a conflict over 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. 

Question 22. "How beautiful you are today!" he said. 

A. He said to me that she was beautiful that day. 

B. He complimented her on being beautiful that day. 

C. He complimented her on being beautiful today. 

D. He complemented her on being beautiful that day 

Question 23. If you want to be kept informed about current affairs you should listen to the radio. 

A. Only by listening to the radio, you can keep yourself informed about current affairs. 

B. Listening to the radio and you will be kept informed about current affairs 

C. A good way of keeping yourself informed about current affairs is listen to the radio. 

D. Listening to the radio is a good way of keeping yourself informed about current affairs. 

Question 24. We got wet yesterday because we didn't remember to bring our raincoats. 

A. We would get wet yesterday if we didn't remember to bring our raincoats. 

B. If we remembered to bring our raincoats, we wouldn't get wet yesterday. 

C. If we had remembered to bring our raincoats, we wouldn't get wet yesterday. 

D. If we had remembered to bring our raincoats, we wouldn't have got wet yesterday. 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes the following exchanges. 

Question 25. Recently, the island of Hawaii ________ the subject of intensive research on the occurrence of earthquakes. 

A. has having B. have been C. had been  D. has been 

Question 26. Students are _______ less pressure as a result of changes in testing procedures. 

A. above  B. out of  C. upon D. under 

Question 27. Joseph R. Biden Jr. was elected the 46th president of the United States. He defeated President Trump after winning Pennsylvania, which put his total of Electoral College votes above the 270 he needed _______ the presidency. 

A. won  B. to win  C. winning D. wins  

Question 28. Switching to ________ light bulb is one way to protect the environment. 

A. energy-expending  B. energy-wasting 

C. energy-saving  D. energy-lacking 

Question 29. It is reported that humans are the main reason for most species decline, habitat ______ is the leading threat. 

A. destroy  B. destructor C. destruction D. destructive 

Question 30. __________ charge for excess luggage is £10 ________ kilo. 

A. X/ the  B. The/ a  C. X/ X  D. X/ a 

Question 31. People should stop smoking ________ it is extremely detrimental to health. 

A. despite  B. although  C. because of D. because 

Question 32. We were having dinner in a restaurant last night when this guy at the next table _______ because the waiter brought the wrong thing. 

A. flushed out of some place  B. flew off the handle 

C. flew into the face of danger  D. flew by the seat of his pants 

Question 33. _________ top of the ten greenest cities in the world, Stockholm is well-known for its cycle paths and lanes full of commuters wearing helmets. 

A. Ranked  B. That is ranked C. To rank  D. Ranking 

Question 34. ___________ appears considerably larger at the horizon than it does overhead is merely an optical illusion. 

A. That the Moon B. The Moon which C. What the Moon D. When the Moon 

Question 35. Alice meets Mary at their class after Mary has had her hair cut. 

Alice: "What an attractive hair style you have got, Mary!" 

Mary: “____________”.

A. Thank you very much. I am afraid B. Thank you for your compliment 

C. I don't like your sayings.  D. You are telling a lie 

Question 36. Some scientists are _______ of not having reported the effects of climate change. 

A. complained B. blamed  C. accused  D. apologised 

Question 37. The local authority demanded that new migrants __________ to settle down. 

A. be supported B. be supporting C. support  D. supported

Question 38. Tom and Tony are talking about a tennis game. 

Tom: "I thought your tennis game was a lot better today, Tony". 

Tony:" _________! I thought it was terrible." 

A. You can say that again  B. Thanks! Same to you 

C. No, I think so  D. You've got to be kidding 

Question 39. My friends don't know him, _______? 

A. are they  B. aren't they C. do they  D. don't they 

Question 40. The passenger asked _______ we landed because she was afraid of being late for the meeting 

A. why  B. what  C. if  D. when 

Question 41: I have just found the book _____

A. you were looking for B. which you were looking

C. for that you were looking D. you were looking

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. 

Question 42. A. nuclear  B. disappear C. pear  D. clear 

Question 43. A. determined B. excited  C. judged  D. seemed 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions. 

Question 44. A. refusal  B. decision  C. possession D. pessimist 

Question 45. A. approach  B. schoolyard C. airport D. value 

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to choose the word or phrase that best fits each other numbered blanks. 

MARITAL PROBLEMS

When people marry, they're usually in love and happy to be tying the (46) _______. But after that, things tend to change. On average, couples' satisfaction with their marriage declines during the first years of marriage and, if the decline is particularly steep, divorce may follow. The course of true love runs downhill. 

For around 30 years, researchers have studied how having children affects a marriage, and the results are (47) ________: the relationship between spouses suffers once kids come along. Comparing couples with and without children, researchers found (48) _________ the rate of the decline in relationship satisfaction is nearly twice as steep for couples who have children than for childless couples. In the (49) ________ that a pregnancy is unplanned, the parents experience even greater negative impacts (50) ________ their relationship. 

The irony is that even as the marital satisfaction of new parents declines, the likelihood of them divorcing also declines. So, having children may make you miserable, but you'll be miserable together. 

<https://www.theguardian.com]> 

Question 46. A. knot B. fort  C. spot  D. sport 

Question 47. A. conclusively B. conclusive C. conclude  D. conclusion 

Question 48. A. that  B. which  C. what  D. why 

Question 49. A. situation  B. moment  C. event  D. case

Question 50. A. at  B. of  C. to  D. on

-----------HẾT------------

ĐÁP ÁN – TEST 15

1-B	2-D	3-C	4-A	5-D	6-C	7-A	8-C	9-B	10-B
11-D	12-D	13-C	14-C	15-D	16-C	17-A	18-C	19-A	20-A
21-C	22-B	23-B	24-D	25-D	26-D	27-B	28-C	29-C	30-B
31-D	32-B	33-A	34-A	35-B	36-C	37-A	38-D	39-C	40-D
41-A	42-C	43-B	44-D	45-A	46-A	47-B	48-A	49-C	50-D

PRACTICE TEST 16

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions from 1 to 3 

Question 1: They believe that burning fossil fuels is the main cause of air pollution. 

A. Burning fossil fuels is believed to have caused high levels of air pollution. 

B. It is believed that air pollution is mainly to blame for burning fossil fuels. 

C. Burning fossil fuels is believed to result from air pollution. 

D. It is believed that burning fossil fuels is held responsible for air pollution. 

Question 2: "I haven't been very open-minded," said the manager. 

A. The manager denied having been very open-minded. 

B. The manager refused to have been very open-minded. 

C. The manager admitted not having been very open-minded. 

D. The manager promised to be very open-minded. 

Question 3: Peter used to work as a journalist for a local newspaper. 

A. Peter has stopped working as a journalist for a local newspaper. 

B. Peter no longer likes the job as a journalist for a local newspaper. 

C. Peter enjoyed working as a journalist for a local newspaper. 

D. Peter refused to work as a journalist for a local newspaper. 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions from 4 to 5 

Question 4: A. liberty B. reliable  C. revival  D. final 

Question 5: A. raised B. developed  C. influenced  D. introduced 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges from 6 to 7 

Question 6: John: " You're already leaving? The ball is only starting." 

- Peter: " But it's very late, so __________." 

A. It's great fun, thanks  B. Take care 

C. Goodbye for now  D. Have a good day 

Question 7: John: "Why don't we go to a baseball game?". 

- Jimmy: "_____________”. 

A. No, thanks. I'd like to sit here  B. I'd rather go to the art gallery 

C. It's good to play baseball  D. No, I don't. 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair sentences in the following questions from 8 to 9 

Question 8: Beef contains vitamins. Generally, fish contains almost the same vitamins as beef. 

A. Generally, beef and fish may be considered to be a combination of vitamin content. 

B. What vitamin fish contains may be considered in general to be made from beef. 

C. The vitamins content of fish may be considered in general as similar to beef. 

D. The vitamins content of beef is generally considered to come from fish. 

Question 9: The man was shot in the bank robbery. The doctors are operating on him. 

A. The man was whom the doctors are operating on him shot in the bank robbery. 

B. The man was shot in the bank robbery where the doctors are operating on him. 

C. The doctors are operating on the man who was shot in the bank robbery. 

D. The man whom the doctors are operating on him shot in the bank robbery. 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the bolded part in each of the following questions from 10 to 11 

Question 10: He didn't bat an eyelid when he realized he failed the exam again. 

A. showed surprise  B. didn't care 

C. didn't want to see  D. wasn't happy 

Question 11: Most universities have trained counselors who can reassure and console students who have academic or personal problems. 

A. please  B. sympathize C. discourage D. satisfy 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions from 12 to 26 

Question 12: - “Are you thinking of flying business class?” - “_____________.” 

A. No, I'd like an aisle seat.  B. I'm flying there to attend a party 

C. No, I'm just on business.  D. No, economy. 

Question 13: If you watch this film, you ________ about the cultures of Southeast Asian countries. 

A. would learn  B. will learn  C. were learning D. learned 

Question 14: Paul noticed a job advertisement while he __________ along the street. 

A. would walk B. had walked C. walked  D. was walking 

Question 15: Solar energy is not widely used ___________ it is friendly to the environment. 

A. in spite of  B. since  C. although  D. because of 

Question 16: The sign warns people ________ the dangers of swimming in this river. 

A. about  B. with  C. from  D. to 

Question 17: _________, they were surprised to find their favourite band playing there. 

A. To have attended the party  B. Just attended the party 

C. On arrival at the party  D. They had arrived at the party 

Question 18: Drinking too much alcohol is said to __________ harm to our health. 

A. take  B. lead  C. make  D. do 

Question 19: At the end of the training course, each participant was presented with a ________ of completion. 

A. diploma  B. certificate  C. degree  D. qualification 

Question 20: The _______ high levels of pollution in the coastal areas are a matter of great concern to the government. 

A. marginally  B. excessively  C. redundantly D. intensively 

Question 21: Event organisers should plan everything carefully so as to leave nothing to _________.

A. opportunity  B. possibility  C. mistake  D. chance 

Question 22: The woman ________ when the police told her that her son had died. 

A. broke in  B. broke down  C. broke into  D. broke away 

Question 23: __________, he couldn't finish that test in 60 minutes. 

A. Intelligent as the boy was  B. Intelligent as was the boy 

C. As the boy was intelligent  D. As intelligent the boy was 

Question 24: My friend always dreams of having __________.

A. red sleeping small a bag.  B. a small red sleeping bag. 

C. a bad small red sleeping.  D. small a bag red sleeping. 

Question 25: David graddol, a British linguist, believes that English _________ 80% of computer-based communication in the 1990s. 

A. took up  B. made over  C. answered for  D. accounted for. 

Question 26: ________ every major judo title, Mark retired from international competition. 

A. Having won  B. Winning  C. When he won D. On winning 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions from 27 to 28 

Question 27: A. answer     B. cartoon C. open  D. paper 

Question 28: A. knowledgeable   B. prosperity C. development D. certificate 

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from from 29 to 33 

Urbanization programs are being carried out in many parts of the world, especially in densely (29) ______ regions with limited land and resources. It is the natural outcome of economic development and industrialization. It has brought a lot of benefits to our society. However, it also (30) ________ various problems for local authorities and town planners in the process of maintaining sustainable urbanization, especially in developing countries. 

When too many people cram into a small area, urban infrastructure can't be effective. There will be a (31) ________ of livable housing, energy and water supply. This will create overcrowded urban districts with no proper facilities. Currently, fast urbanization is taking place predominantly in developing countries where sustainable urbanization has little relevance to people's lives. Their houses are just shabby slums with poor sanitation. Their children only manage to get basic education. Hence, the struggle for (32) _________ is their first priority rather than anything else. Only when the quality of their existence is improved, can they seek (33) ________ other high values in their life. 

Question 29: A. crowed B. numerous  C. popular  D. populated 

Question 30: A. imposes B. poses  C. leads  D. offers 

Question 31: A. lack B. plenty  C. appearance  D. loss 

Question 32: A. survivor B. survive  C. survival  D. survived 

Question 33: A. about B. with  C. for  D. on 

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions from 34 to 36 

Question 34: More research is needed to find out if acupuncture is helped with other side effects such as pain, anxiety or shortness of breath. 

A. such as  B. is helped  C. shortness  D. is needed 

Question 35: ASEAN aims at promoting economic growth, regional peace as well as provide opportunities for its members. 

A. provide  B. economic growth C. aims at  D. its 

Question 36: She complained that her husband never paid her any complements anymore. 

A. never  B. any complements C. complained D. anymore. 

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 37 to 43 

Today, there are 600 million cars in the world. They may seem like a lot. However, there are over 7 million people on our planet. Most of the world's population uses public transportation to get around. The number of people using public transportation continues to rise. Subway systems worldwide carry 155 million passengers each day. That's more than 30 times the number carried by all the world's airplanes. Every day in Tokyo passengers take more than 40 million rides on public transportation. 

Yet many people see public transportation as “a depressing experience”, says author Taras Gresco. They say it is slow, crowded, or too expensive. In fact, Gresco says, it is actually 'faster, more comfortable and cheaper than driving a car. Like millions of people, Taras Gresco is a 'straphanger’- a person who rides public transportation. In his book straphanger: Saving Our Cities and Ourselves from the Automobile, Gresco describe the benefits of public transportation. Firstly, it is better for the environment. When people use public transportation, they use less fuel. Twenty people on one bus use much less fuel than 20 people in 20 cars. Fewer cars mean less pollution and cleaner air. Using public transportation can be good for your health in other ways. It can even help you lose weight. In one study, a group of people took public transportation every day for six months. Each day they walked to a bus stop or train station. In six months, each person lost an average of six pounds - almost three kilograms. Taking public transportation has another benefit, says Gresco. It helps people become part of their community. When you are alone in your car, you don't talk to anyone. One Tokyo straphanger told Gresco, “To use public transport is to know how to cooperate with other people,' It teaches you how to behave in a public space’. So, public transportation is more than a way to get to work or school. It can help lead to cleaner cities. It may also lead to a healthier and more cooperative world population. 

Question 37: According to the passage, the number of people travelling by planes each day is about 

A. 185 million  B. 20 million  C. 125 million D. 5 million 

Question 38: The word “it" in the passage refers to 

A. driving a car  B. author Taras Gresco. 

C. depressing experiece  D. public transportation 

Question 39: What is not true about Taras Gresco according to the reading passage? 

A. Taras Gresco often travels by public transportation, especially the bus. 

B. Taras Gresco wrote a book about the benefits of public transportation. 

C. Taras Gresco finds public transportation beneficial for both the cities and the users. 

D. Taras Gresco launched a campaign to encourage people to use the public transportation. 

Question 40: Which of the following is mentioned as a benefit for a public transportation rider? 

A. He or she will be able to learn how to ride a means of public transportation. 

B. He or she will have a good chance to make more friends with the different people. 

C. He or she will have a good chance to enjoy the natural landscape. 

D. He or she will know how to behave in public places and cooperate with others. 

Question 41: Which of the following is not mentioned in the passage as the one that benefits from the public transportation? 

A. the environment B. the car driver C. the city  D. the bus rider 

Question 42: How does the environment benefit from people's use of the public transportation? 

A. Buses and trains not only conserve energy but also save public transportation 

B. The smaller number of cars sold helps the automobile industry save the environment substantially. 

C. Subways use renewable energy sources instead of the fossil fuels, making the environment cleaner. 

D. Fewer people using private transportation means less fuel used, hence cleaner environment. 

Question 43: Which of the following can be the best title of the reading passage? 

A. Public Transportation - a way to Loose Weight. 

B. Public Transportation We all Benefit 

C. public transportation - Cleaner - Cities 

D. Public transportation - to Save the Environment 

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word phrases SIMILAR in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions from 44 to 45 

Question 44: The aboriginal people of Australia are experts at survival in an environment with scanty resources. 

A. ordinary  B. natural  C. limited  D. abundant 

Question 45: Sometimes, in order to get things done, you have to take the initiative. 

A. sacrifice for others  B. make the last decision 

C. make important changes  D. raise the first idea 

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions from 46 to 50 

The word robot first appeared in a 1921 stage play by Czech writer Karel Capek. In the play, a man makes a machine that can think, which he calls a robot and which ends up killing its owner. In the 1940s, the American science fiction writer Isaac Asimov wrote a series of stories about robots and invented the term robotics, the science of robots. Meanwhile, in the real world, the first robots were developed by an engineer, Joseph F. Engelberger, and an inventor, George C. Devol. Together they started Unimation, a manufacturing company that produces the first real robot in 1961, called the Unimate. Robots of this type were installed at a General Motors automobile plant and proved to be a success. They worked reliably and saved money for General Motors, so other companies were soon acquiring robots as well. These industrial robots were nothing like the terrifying creatures that can often be seen in science fiction films. In fact, these robots looked and behaved nothing like humans. They were simply pieces of computer-controlled machinery, with metal "arms” or “hands". Since they were made of metal, they could perform certain jobs that were difficult or dangerous for humans, particularly jobs that involve high heat. And since robots were tireless and never got hungry, sleepy, or distracted, they were useful for tasks that would be tiring or boring for humans. Industrial robots have been improved over the years, and today they are used in many factories around the world. Though the use of robots has meant the loss of some jobs, at the same time other jobs have been created in the design, development, and production of the robots. 

Rise of the Robots, Silicon Valley Entrepreneur, Martin Ford, 1988. 

Question 46: What is Unimation? 

A. It's a robot making program  B. It's the name of a robot 

C. It's the producer of the first robot  D. It's the name of a robot inventor 

Question 47: What can be said about Karel Capek? 

A. He made a robot in order to kill a person B. He was the first to create the word “robot" 

C. He is an American writer  D. He made a robot 

Question 48: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a characteristic of robots? 

A. They don't need food  B. They are not distracted 

C. They are tiring  D. They can do jobs involving high heat 

Question 49: What are industrial robots like? 

A. They behave like humans  B. They are computer-controlled machines 

C. They controlled machinery  D. They look like humans 

Question 50: When did the word "robot" appear? 

A. in the 1920s  B. in the 40s 

C. in the 19th century  D. in the 60s 

ĐÁP ÁN – TEST 16

1-D	2-C	3-A	4-A	5-A	6-C	7-B	8-C	9-C	10-A
11-C	12-D	13-B	14-D	15-C	16-A	17-C	18-D	19-B	20-B
21-B	22-B	23-A	24-B	25-A	26-A	27-B	28-A	29-D	30-B
31-1	32-C	33-C	34-B	35-A	36-B	37-D	38-D	39-D	40-D
41-B	42-D	43-B	44-C	45-D	46-C	47-B	48-C	49-B	50-A

PRACTICE TEST 17 – 2021

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes the following exchanges. 

Question 1. Mike and David are university students. They are talking about the result of the chemistry test. Select the most suitable response to fill in the blank. 

- Mike: "I was worried about the chemistry result, but Mr. Brown gave me an Al"

 - David: “________________” 

A. Congratulations! That's great!  B. Mr. Brown is so mean. 

C. Don't worry about it.  D. Good luck to you! 

Question 2. Two friends are talking about the benefits of volunteering. 

- Daisy: "As far as I know, doing charity Work is a really helpful thing for everyone in the society 

- Mark: 

A. You can say that again  B. I take part in this campaign. 

C. That's fine for me  D. That sounds great. 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 

Question 3. The situation of COVID-19 worldwide is still serious, ____________?

A. isn't it  B. doesn't it  C. is it  D. is not it 

Question 4. June really liked ________ book that her boyfriend gave her yesterday. 

A. an  B. a  C.   D. the 

Question 5. Britain has accused Russia __________ poisoning the ex-Russian spy Sergei Skripal and his daughter.

  A. of  B. on  C. from  D. for 

Question 6. We should participate in the movements _________ to conserve the environment. 

A. organizing B. to organize C. organized D. are organized 

Question 7. If computers become as smart as humans, _________ our jobs better than we can? 

A. do they do B. would they do C. Will they do D. they will do 

Question 8. It was such a _________ concert that even Son Tung MTP's fans couldn't believe it. 

A. surprise  B. surprisingly C. surprised D. surprising 

Question 9. Guests are requested to state their _________ for smoking and non-smoking accommodation upon booking 

A. care  B. likeness  C. trend  D. preference 

Question 10. Before I send this article to the editor, I'd be grateful if you could ________ it for me. 

A. break through B. go through C. look up  D. take over 

Question 11. Only when you grow up _________ how to organize things more neatly. 

A. you will know B. do you know C. you know D. will you know 

Question 12. After the accident, the police informed the victim's next of _________.

A. kin  B. blood  C. relation  D. generation 

Question 13. She looked round to see who was going ____________ her. 

A. after  B. at  C. up  D. for 

Question 14. We are raising funds for people with visual _________ in the city. 

A. failures  B. damages C. breakages D. impairments 

Question 15. By the time Ryan finally graduated from high school, he ________ five different schools because his parents moved frequently.

A. had attended B. was attending C. has been attending D. attended 

Question 16. I spoke to a boy _________ father is a famous scientist. 

A. who's  B. whose  C. that's  D. whom 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word in each of the following questions. 

Question 17. Mr. Young, general manager of the emergency response division of AMSA, said that the debris was spotted along a busy shipping route and could be containers that had fallen off cargo vessels. 

A. analyzed B. shot  C. collected D. seen 

Question 18. She was a devoted teacher. She spent most of her time teaching and taking care of her students. 

A. dedicated  B. lazy  C. polite  D. honest 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheer to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. 

Question 19. The result of the studies have had a strong impact on future developments. 

A. strong  B. on  C. of  D. have had 

Question 20. Some methods to prevent soil erosion are plowing parallel with the slopes of hills, to plant trees on unproductive land, and rotating crops. 

A. Some  B. rotating C. to prevent D. to plant 

Question 21. The field of Artificial Intelligence research was found at a workshop held on the campus of Dartmouth College during the summer of 1956. 

A. was found B. the  C. held on D. field 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. 

Question 22. He was very tired. He agreed to help me with my homework. 

A. Though he was tired, he agreed to help me with my homework 

B. As he was tired, he didn't agree to help me with my homework. 

C. That he agreed to help me with my homework made him tired. 

D. Feeling tired, he refused to help me with my homework. 

Question 23. He was very surprised to be addressed by the Queen. He didn't answer at once. 

A. Not until he was so surprised to answer did the Queen address him. 

B. Only when he was addressed by the Queen could he answer the surprising questions at once. 

C. So surprised was he to be addressed by the Queen that he didn't answer at once. 

D. But for such a nice surprise, he would have been addressed by the Queen. 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions. 

Question 24. A. easy  B. floppy  C. marine  D. sensible 

Question 25. A. reference B. industry C. refusal  D. butterfly 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. 

Question 26. A. kites  B. balls  C. hopes  D. kicks 

Question 27. A. feather  B. feature  C. leather  D. measure 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. 

Question 28. "You should take better care of your health said Tom's mother. 

A. Tom's mother promised to take better care of his health. 

B. Tom's mother required him to take better care of his heath. 

C. Tom's mother advised him to take better entre of his health. 

D. Tom's mother ordered him to take better care of his health. 

Question 29. Thomas is more reliable than his roommate. 

A. Thomas is less reliable than his roommate is. B. Thomas is not a reliable as his roommate is. 

C. Thomas' roommate is more reliable than him. D. Thomas' roommate is not as reliable as him. 

Question 30. My American friend finds it difficult to pick up food with chopsticks. 

A. My American friend can't find chopsticks to pick up food.

  B. My American friend is not used to picking up food with chopsticks. 

C. My American friend didn't used to pick up food with chopsticks. 

D. My American friend doesn't feel like picking up food with chopsticks. 

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to choose the word or phrase that best fits each other numbered blanks. 

The idea of going overseas to study can be daunting, with visions of baffling languages or nights spent in isolation while you are gradually forgotten by your friends and family. (31) ________, the benefits of studying abroad - such as broadening your mind, improving your career prospects and making friends from all over the world - can make digging out your passport really rewarding. “Studying abroad is an eye-opening experience," says Anna Boyd, event manager at The Student World. “Being (32) ________ in another culture, understanding differences and spotting similarities, living on a beach or in the mountains, (33) ________ will have an impact on every student.” 

Overseas study comes in many shapes and sizes. It might be a single semester abroad via an Erasmus program for example. Or you might elect to follow a full three- or four-year degree program. Whatever your ambition is, the key is starting early. Some countries require specific combinations of A-levels from UK students. Germany looks for four A-levels including maths or science and one modern foreign language, for instance, while others, such as the US, value extracurricular activities. Starting our research well ahead (34)_______ time can help you make the right choices. “Getting involved in sports, arts and music is also worth considering, as well as gaining experience through volunteering and work placements,” says Boyd. In fact, applying to study abroad could even work to your advantage, for example, you might encounter lower (35) ______ requirements. 

(Adapted from https://wwwindependent.caukistudent/study-abroad) 

Question 31. A. Thereby  B. However C. But  D. Therefore 

Question 32. A. reside  B. taken  C. interested  D. immersed 

Question 33. A. where  B. which  C. why  D. that 

Question 34. A. off  B. in  C. of  D. on 

Question 35. A. entrance  B. enter  C. entry  D. entered 

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on you answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. 

New Zealand is a small country of four million inhabitants, a long-haul flight from all the major tourist-generating markets of the world. Tourism currently makes up 9% of the country's gross domestic product and is the country's largest export sector. Unlike other export sectors, which make products and then sell them overseas, tourism brings its customers to New Zealand. The product is the country itself the people, the places, and the experiences. In 1999, Tourism New Zealand launched a campaign to communicate a new brand position to the world. The campaign focused on New Zealand's scenic beauty, exhilarating outdoor activities and authentic Maori culture, and it made New Zealand one of the strongest national brands in the world. 

A key feature of the campaign was the website www.newzealand.com, which provided potential visitors to New Zealand with a single gateway to everything the destination had to offer. The heart of the website was a database of tourism services operators, both those based in New Zealand and those based abroad which offered tourism service to the country. Any tourism-related business could be listed by filling in a simple form. This meant that even the smallest bed and breakfast address or specialist activity provider could gain a web presence with access to an audience of long-haul visitors. In addition, because participating businesses were able to update the details they gave on a regular basis, the information provided remained accurate. And to maintain and improve standards, Tourism New Zealand organised a scheme whereby organisations appearing on the website underwent an independent evaluation against a set of agreed national standards of quality. As part of this, the effect of each business on the environment was considered. 

To communicate the New Zealand experience, the site also carried features relating to famous people and places. One of the most popular was an interview with former New Zealand All Blacks rugby captain Tana Umaga. Another feature that attracted a lot of attention was an interactive journey through a number of the locations chosen for blockbuster films which had made use of New Zealand's stunning scenery as a backdrop. As the site developed, additional features were added to help independent travelers devise their own customised itineraries. 

(Adapted from Cambridge IELTS 13) 

Question 36. What is the passage mainly about? 

A. The tourism in New Zealand  B. The tourist attractions in New Zealand 

C. The website for New Zealand's tourism D. The website of New Zealand 

Question 37. The word "it" in paragraph 1 refers to _________.

A. New Zealand's scenic beauty  B. campaign 

C. tourism  D. website 

Question 38. According to paragraph 4. why did the website conduct an interview with Tana Umaga? 

A. to advertise the New Zealand experience B. to attract a lot of attention. 

C. to show off the beauty of New Zealand. D. to encourage tourists to visit New Zealand. 

Question 39. The word "evaluation" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _________. 

A. score  B. result  C. comparison D. assessment 

Question 40. Which statement is TRUE, according to the passage? 

A. New Zealand is a small country, with a population of fourteen million. 

B. New Zealand cuisine has made New Zealand one of the world's biggest national brands. 

C. Blockbuster films had used New Zealand's stunning scenery as a backdrop. 

D. New Zealand's products are not about its food, people, places and experiences. 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 

Question 41. Don't get angry with such a thing. It's only a storm in a teacup.

A. financial issue B. serious problem C. commercial tension D. trivial thing 

Question 42. Lunar years were inconvenient for agricultural purposes. 

A. useful  B. practical C. ideal  D. proper 

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on you answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. 

People think children should play sports. Sports are fun, and playing with others. However, playing sports can have negative effects on children. It may produce feelings of poor self-esteem or aggressive behavior in some children. According to research on kids and sports, 40,000,000 kids play sports in the US. Of these, 18,000,000 say they have been yelled at or called names while playing sports. This leaves many children with a bad impression of sports. They think sports are just too aggressive. 

Many researchers believe adults, especially parents and coaches, are the main cause of too much aggression in children's sports. They believe children copy aggressive adult behavior. This behavior is then further reinforced through both positive and negative feedback. Parents and coaches are powerful teachers because children usually look up to them. Often these adults behave aggressively themselves, sending children the message that winning is everything. At children's sporting events, parents may yell insults at other players or cheer when their child behaves aggressively. As well, children may be taught that hurting other players is acceptable or are pushed to continue playing even when they are injured. In addition, the media makes violence seem exciting. Children watch adult sports games and see violent behavior replayed over and over on television. 

As a society, we really need to face up to this problem and do something about it. Parents and coaches should act as better examples for children. They also need to teach children better values. They should teach children to enjoy themselves whether they win or not. It's not necessary to knock yourself out to enjoys sports. Winning isn't everything. In addition, children shouldn't be allowed to continue to play when they are injured. Sending a child with an injury into a game gives the child the message that health isn't as important as winning. If we make some basic changes, children might learn to enjoy sports again. 

(Adapted from Reading Challenge 2 by Casep Ma/archer and Andrea Jansen) 

Question 43. Which of the following could be the main idea of passage? 

A. Playing sports may make children more violent. 

B. The negative impacts sports bring children outweigh their positive effects. 

C. Playing sports is not always beneficial to children's health. 

D. Children should be discouraged to play sports when they are too young.

Question 44. The word "This" in paragraph 1 refers to _________ 

A. being yelled or called names while playing sports B. playing sports 

C. aggressive behavior  D. millions of kids playing sports in the US 

Question 45. The word “reinforced” in the second paragraph could be best replace by ________. 

A. reduced  B. deteriorated C. prevented D. strengthened 

Question 46. According to paragraph 2. the following are the reasons of children's aggression, EXCEPT _______.

A. parents and coaches are too aggressive to win 

B. children shout at their opponents as playing 

C. violent manners are repeated many times on television 

D. children are likely trained that it's appropriate to commit a foul against an opponent 

Question 47. What does the author suggest in the last paragraph? 

A. Aggressive behavior is indispensable in playing sports. 

B. Children are inevitable to hurt or yell at other players when playing sports. 

C. Relishing themselves should be children's principal purpose when playing sports. 

D. Being injured in sports is not acceptable. 

Question 48. The word "self-esteem" in the first paragraph could be best replace by _________. 

A. self-deprecation B. self-satisfaction C. self-abasement D. self-absorbed 

Question 49. How many children said they had some negative experience when playing sports? 

A. About ten percents of the children. B. All of the children. 

C. More than half of the children.  D. Less than half of the children. 

Question 50. What would probably NOT be done when "facing up to a problem? 

A. Finding the reason  B. Ignoring the problem 

C. Looking for a solution  D. Admitting there is a problem 

---------------- THE END --------------

ĐÁP ÁN – TEST 17

1-A	2-A	3-A	4-D	5-A	6-C	7-C	8-D	9-D	10-B
11-D	12-A	13-A	14-D	15-A	16-B	17-D	18-A	19-D	20-D
21-A	22-A	23-C	24-C	25-C	26-B	27-B	28-C	29-D	30-B
31-B	32-D	33-B	34-C	35-A	36-C	37-B	38-A	39-D	40-C
41-B	42-A	43-C	44-A	45-D	46-B	47-C	48-C	49-D	50-B

PRACTICE TEST 18

SỞ GD & ĐT KIÊN GIANG TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN HUỲNH MẪN ĐẠT ------------------

KỲ THI THỬ TỐT NGHIỆP THPTQG NĂM HỌC 2020 – 2021 MÔN TIẾNG ANH Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút không kể thời gian phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word having the underlined part pronounced differently from the rest. 

Câu 1: A. graduate B. maximum  C. vacancy  D. Applicant 

Câu 2: A. employed B. provided  C. challenged  D. explained 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word having the different stress pattern from the rest. 

Câu 3: A. experience B. congratulate  C. particular  D. engineering 

Câu 4: A. terrorist B. expected  C. contribute  D. exciting 

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to the following question. 

Câu 5: When I came to visit her last night, she __________ a bath. 

A. is having  B. was having  C. has  D. have 

Câu 6: We __________ Mrs. Brown since last Saturday. 

A. don't see  B. haven't seen  C. didn't see  D. hadn't seen 

Câu 7: The students __________ to be at school by the teacher at 8:00 am. 

A. tell  B. told  C. have told  D. were told 

Câu 8: Be sure _________ neatly when you go to a job interview. 

A. to be dressing  B. dress  C. dressing  D. to dress 

Câu 9: We enjoy ________ time together in the evening when the family members gather in the living room after a day of working hard. 

A. spending  B. to spend  C. spend  D. spent 

Câu 10: Most of the people _________ to talk at the lecture arrived late because of the heavy traffic. 

A. invited  B. who inviting  C. whom were invited D. Invite 

Câu 11: It is of great importance to create a good impression __________ your interviewer. 

A. on  B. about  C. for  D. at 

Câu 12: Paul was __________ disappointed with his examination results that he didn't smile all week. 

A. too  B. enough  C. such  D. so 

Câu 13: Tell me the day _________ you want to have your interview. 

A. which  B. when  C. in that  D. where 

Câu 14: Good preparations _________ your job interview is a must.

  A. with  B. upon  C. in  D. for 

Câu 15: He is __________ that everyone loves him. 

A. very kind  B. too kind  C. kind enough  D. such a kind man 

Câu 16: This is the cat _________

A. whom I bought at the pet shop  B. where at the pet shop I bought 

C. I bought at the pet shop  D. at the pet shop I bought it 

Câu 17: _________ to school as a child, I would have learned how to use a computer. 

A. Although I went  B. Because I was able to go 

C. If I had been able to go  D. Unless I didn't go 

Câu 18: My cousin, _________, is going to come and stay with us this summer holiday. A. who I talked to you 

B. I talk to you about her B. I talk to you about her.

C. whom I talked to you about her  D. whom I talked to you about 

Câu 19. __________ ten minutes earlier, you would have got a better seat. 

A. Had you arrived B. If you arrived 

C. Were you arrived D. If you hadn't arrived 

Câu 20: You should find a job to live _________ from your parents. 

A. dependence  B. independence C. independent D. independently 

Câu 21: Children receive their early _________ at home so parents should buy some educational magazines to put them in the bookcase 

A. educate  B. educational  C. education  D. educating 

Câu 22: He was pleased that things in his university were going on __________. 

A. satisfied  B. satisfactorily  C. satisfying  D. satisfactory 

Câu 23: Before the interview, you have to send a letter of _________ and your résumé to the company. 

A. application  B. reference  C. curriculum vitae D. photograph 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 

Câu 24: In a school year in Vietnam, there are two semesters called the first semester and the second semester. 

A. senses  B. parts  C. terms  D. systems 

Choose the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions 

Câu 25: Different from English taught to all Vietnamese students, Chinese and Russian have been made optional languages taught at secondary schools in Vietnam. 

A. compulsory  B. important C. comfortable  D. necessary 

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. 

Câu 26: Julie and Ann are talking about their new classmate.

 Julie: “ ____________?” 

Ann: “Yeah, not bad, I suppose.” 

A. He is quite good-looking, isn't he  B. Do you see him often 

C. What are you thinking  D. How did you meet him 

Câu 27: Nam and Lan are talking in the office when they have a tea-break. 

Nam: "Would you like to join us for dinner after work?" 

Lan: “_________________” 

A. Thanks. You can cook dinner.

B. I'd love to, but I have to finish my important report for tomorrow. 

C. Thanks for your help, but I can cook dinner myself. 

D. What's wrong with you? 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. 

Câu 28: We know (A) that we have to work (B) hardly to earn a living (C) ourselves and (D) support the family. 

A. that  B. hardly  C. ourselves  D. support 

Câu 29: (A) San Francisco City, (B) that is (C) a beautiful city, (D) has a population of six million. 

A. San Francisco  B. that  C. a  D. has 

Câu 30: (A) The first year at (B) college was (C) probably the most (D) challenged year of my life. 

A. The  B. college  C. probably  D. challenged year 

Câu 31: The British (A) national anthem, (B) calling “God Save the Queen”, (C) was a traditional (D) song in the 18th century. 

A. national  B. calling  C. was a  D. song 

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. 

Câu 32: He lost his job three months ago. 

A. They are three months since he lost his job.

B. It is three months since he lost his job. 

C. It is three months ago for him to lose his job.

D. It has been three months since he has lost his job. 

Câu 33: Nam said to the taxi driver, “Please turn left at the first traffic light." 

A. Nam tells the taxi driver please turn left at the first traffic light. 

B. Nam said the taxi driver for turn left at the first traffic light. 

C. Nam asked the taxi driver if turning left at the first traffic light. 

D. Nam told the taxi driver to turn left at the first traffic light. 

Câu 34: He raised his hand high. He wanted to attract his teacher's attention. 

A. Because his teacher attracted him, he raised his hand high. 

B. To attract his teacher's attention, he raised his hand high. 

C. Though he raised his hand high, he could not attract his teacher's attention. 

D. He had such a high raising of hand that he failed to attract his teacher's attention. 

Câu 35: His academic record at high school was poor. He failed to apply to that famous university. 

A. His academic record at high school was poor because he didn't apply to that famous university. 

B. His academic record at high school was poor as a result of his failure to apply to that famous university. 

C. Failing to apply to that famous university, his academic record at high school was poor. 

D. His academic record at high school was poor; as a result, he failed to apply to that famous university. 

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. 

Last week I went to visit Atlantic College, an excellent private college in Wales. Unusually, it gives people much needed experience of life outside the classroom, as well as the opportunity to study for their exams. The students, who are aged between 16 and 18 and come from all over the word, spend the morning studying. In the afternoon, they go out and do a really useful activity, such as helping on the farm, looking after people with learning difficulties, or checking for pollution in rivers. 

One of the great things about Atlantic College students is that they come from many different social backgrounds and countries. As few can afford the fees of £20,000 over two years, grants are available. A quarter of students are British, and many of those can only attend because they receive government help. 

“I really admire the college for trying to encourage international understanding among young people", as Barbara Molenkamp, a student from the Netherlands, said. "You learn to live with people and respect them, even the ones you don't like. During the summer holidays, my mother could not believe how much less I argued with my sister." 

To sum up, Atlantic College gives its students an excellent education, using methods which really seem to work. 

Câu 36: What does the word "argued" in the third paragraph mean? 

A. quarreled  B. respected  C. admired  D. regarded 

Câu 37: How has Barbara changed since being at Atlantic College? 

A. She knows a lot about other countries. 

B. She is more confident than her sister now. 

C. She finds it easier to get on with other people. 

D. She prefers her new friends to her family. 

Câu 38: What is the writer trying to do in the text? 

A. Give an opinion about a particular student. 

B. Give an opinion about a special type of education. 

C. Describe the activities the students do in their free time. 

D. Describe his own experience of education. 

Câu 39: What can a reader find out from this text? 

A. How to become a student at Atlantic College. 

B. What kind of programme Atlantic College offers. 

C. What the British education system is like. 

D. How to get along better with other people. 

Câu 40: What is the writer's opinion of Atlantic College? 

A. It doesn't allow students enough study time. 

B. Its students are taught to like each other. 

C. It doesn't give good value for money. 

D. Its way of teaching is successful. 

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. 

Many years ago, people often said “A woman's place is in the home”. But Americans do not feel that way anymore. Today, women make up about 43 percent of the America labor force. There are about 45 million working women in the United States, and a large number of them are married women with children. In 1980, for the first time in the nation's history there were more working wives than household wives. Looking back to 1940, we can see picture of some very rapid change. In 1940, only 15 percent of married women held jobs. 

Today, most young women choose to work even when they have young children. Why do they work? The most important reason is that they need to earn money. But another reason is that women today are better educated and they have more opportunities to work in various professions than women had earlier. 

Câu 41: According to the passage, what is the percentage of men in the labor force today? 

A. 15 percent  B. 57 percent  C. 45 percent  D. 43 percent 

Câu 42: Which of the following is NOT true, according to the passage? 

A. Women work because they want to make their own living. 

B. Women play an important role in the labor force now. 

C. The majority of working women are single. 

D. Women have better schooling nowadays. 

Câu 43: What does the word “rapid" in the first paragraph mean? 

A. significant  B. valid  C. quick  D. slow 

Câu 44: What can be inferred from the passage? 

A. Women need money more than education. 

B. Young women do not get married in order to have jobs. 

C. Women can work in many different fields. 

D. The best place for women is in the home. 

Câu 45: What does this passage mainly discuss? 

A. Women and jobs in America.

B. Well-educated women in America 

C. More women than men in the labor force 

D. The number of women who work outside the home. 

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word for each of the blanks. 

It's always worth preparing well for an interview. Don't just hope (46) _________ the best. Here are a few tips. Practice how you say things, as well as what intend to say. If you don't own a video camera, perhaps a friend of yours (47) ___________. Borrow it and make a video tape of yourself. Find somebody (48) _________ it with you and give you a bit of advice on how you appear and behave. 

Before the interview, plan what to wear. Find out how the company expects its (49) to dress. At the interview, believe in yourself and be (50) ___________, open and friendly. Pay attention and keep your answers to the point. The interviewer doesn't want to waste time and neither do you. 

Câu 46: A. against  B. for  C. to  D. at 

Câu 47: A. does  B. is  C. have  D. own 

Câu 48: A. being watch B. watching C. watched D. to watch 

Câu 49: A. colleagues  B. employees C. customers D. employers 

Câu 50: A. dishonest  B. honestly C. honest D. honesty 

------------------ THE END ---------------

ĐÁP ÁN – TEST 18

1-C	2-B	3-D	4-A	5-B	6-B	7-D	8-D	9-A	10-A
11-A	12-D	13-B	14-D	15-D	16-C	17-C	18-D	19-A	20-D
21-C	22-B	23-A	24-C	25-A	26-A	27-B	28-B	29-B	30-D
31-B	32-B	33-D	34-B	35-D	36-A	37-C	38-B	39-B	40-D
41-B	42-C	43-C	44-C	45-A	46-B	47-A	48-D	49-B	50-C

PRACTICE TEST 19 - 2021

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

1. A. hands B. occasions C. associates D. others

2. A. pay B. clay C. essay D. said

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

3. A. design B. marry C. caring D. special

4. A. exciting B. charity C. convenient D. surprising

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

5. The conical leaf hat is made _____ a special kind _____bamboo and young and soft palm leaves.

A. in/for B. of/of C. on/for D. from/of

6. ____ should try to make good impression on interviewers.

A. apply B. Applicants C. Applying D. Applied

7. The city is determined to rid itself of problems with drainage, waste, air and noise pollution ___ to make Vietnam’s aged capital a clean and green city.

A. so that B. in order that C. to order D. so as

8. If it rained heavily, the fields _____ flooded now.

A. will be B. had been C. would be D. can be

9. They search ____ for the missing documents but they were never found.

A. to and for B. high and low C. up and down D. back to back

10. If one ____ a killing, one must expect to suffer the consequences.

A. creates B. makes C. commits D. shows

11. After finishing the presentation, I suggested ___ to the cinema.

A. us to go B. that we to go C. going D. we going

12. They ____ for more than five miles but they did not stop to rest.

A. were walking B. have walk C. had been walking D. have been walking

13. The spirit of the Asian Games has been ___ over a long period of time, and passed from one Games to the next spreading massages of unity, warmth and friendship.

A. gone over B. put off C. looked for D. built up

14. It is only recently that ballets have been based on themes _____ American life.

A. reflecting B. reflects C. is reflecting D. reflected

15. They are not coming, ______?

A. are they B. aren’t they C. they are D. don’t they

16. I cannot remember if I saw that play on ____ television or at the cinema.

A. a B. an C. x D. the

17. It is not easy to _____________ our beauty when we get older and older.

A. maintain B. develop C. gain D. collect

18. Gabriel Garcia Marquez, a Colombian writer whose book One Hundred Years of Solitude is among his most famous, ________________ the Nobel prize in 1982.

A. who won B. having won C. which won D. won

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

19. Every opponent must take a drug test before the race.

A. friend B. ally C. partner D. competitor

20. The movie was so funny that we couldn’t help laughing.

A. chuckling B. crying C. weeping D. moaning

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

21. My father is willing to contribute to household chores.

A. agreeable B. reluctant C. ready D. responsive

22. He is extremely smart. He's head and shoulders above anyone else in the class.

A. better than B. inferior to C. more clever than D. superior to

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges.

23- "What’s the matter? You don’t look very well." - "_____________________________."

A. I feel a little under the weather B. I feel a little under the impression

C. I feel a little out of the blue D. I feel a little out of order

24. - Kate: __________!

- Jackie: Thanks, I will write to you when I come to London.

A. Have a nice trip B. Better luck next time C. Let’s go ahead D. Have a go

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 25 to 29.

Most people work to earn a living, and produce goods and services. Goods are (25) ____agricultural (like wheat and milk) or manufactured (like cars and paper). Services are such things (26) ____ education, medicine and commerce. Some people provide products. An example can be a man who produces goods such as rice. Some provide services. In a hotel, services can range from cleaning, washing to arranging tours within and outside the city where (27) ____. Other people provide both goods and services. For example, in the same garage, a man may buy a car or some service which helps him to maintain his car.

The work people do is called economic activity. All economic activities together make up the economic system of a town, a city, a country or the world. Such an economic system is the sum (28)___ and what they want. The work people undertake either provide what they need or provides the money with (29)____ they can buy essential commodities. Of course, most people hope to earn enough money to buy commodities which are non-essential but which provide particular personal satisfaction, like toys for children, visits to cinema, computer games and books.

25. A. either B. both C. neither D. only

26. A. else B. for C. with D. as

27. A. are the guests staying B. the guests are staying

C. are staying the guests D. staying the guests are

28. A. what people do B. of total what people do

C. total of what people do D. of what people do in total

29. A. that B. without which C. the money D. which

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 30 to 34.

Most educational specialists believe that early childhood education should provide children with an awareness of their own abilities and the self-confidence in those they have. One of the approaches recognized by many experts as promoting these qualities is the Montessori method, first practiced by an Italian called Maria Montessori in the early 1900s. However, Nancy McCormick Rambusch is the one credited for popularizing the method in the US, where today there are over 400 Montessori schools.

The method helps children learn for themselves by providing them with instructional materials and tasks that facilitate discovery and manipulation. Through such exploration, children develop their senses and learn how to do everyday tasks without adult assistance. Other benefits include improvement in language skills, and acquaintance with elements of science, music and art.

30. What is the main idea of this passage?

A. To discuss the life and work of Maria Montessori

B. To explain the role of early education in children development

C. To descried the development of the Montessori method

D. To demonstrate how children learn social and cultural values.

31. According to the passage, who was the first responsible for spreading the Montessori method in the US?

A. A prominent educational expert

B. An administrator in the Development of Education

C. Maria Montessori

D. Nancy McCormick Rambusch

32. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a benefit of the Montessori method?

A. Improvement of language ability B. Knowledge of art and sciences

C. Capacity to perform adult tasks D. Development of tactile senses

33. The author of this passage probably feels that the Montessori method

A. has little long-lasting benefit for children B. is an effective means for children education

C. will lose its popularity in the US D. does not accomplish what it claims to achieve

34. The following paragraph most likely discusses

A. another educational approach beneficial to children

B. elements of science, music and art

C. additional practitioners of the Montessori method

D. details on the life of Maria Montessori.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.

Technology has utterly transformed our ability to communicate with each other. Linking to each other both literally and figuratively, many of us connect through cell phones, email, instant messaging, blogs, and networking web sites, yet we may be less connected to each other than we think.

According to a study, Americans are becoming increasingly socially isolated. The study reveals, for example, that one quarter of Americans say that they have no one to discuss important personal issues with, and that the number of close friends that American have has dropped from three to two. Meanwhile, the Boston Globe reports that this spreading isolation is experienced more sharply among those with less education, people of color, and older Americans. Unsurprisingly, those who are young, white, and well educated tend to have stronger social networks.

From my own experience I have to say that I’ve never felt more connected, thanks to a web of friends, family, and colleagues. One of my closest friends is someone I met through an online discussion group who lives hundreds of miles away from me. We have met face-to-face only twice, yet our regular electronic correspondence and cell phone calls sustain our close friendship. And, speaking of blogging, my blog has introduced me to people I would never have met otherwise and has led to enduring and important friendships.

On the other hand, I recently saw a scene unfold that proved to me how deeply disconnected we as Americans have become. I had just wrapped up a presentation on mediation at a family therapy center. As I was leaving, I noticed a mother and her teenage son who had just completed their session with their family therapist. After making their next appointment, they both took out their cell phones, placed calls, and began loud conversations with whoever was on the other end. I walked out behind them to the parking lot to my car. They both jumped into their SUV, and, as I saw them drive off, they were still talking on their cell phones. But, alas, not to each other.

35. What does the passage lead you to believe?

A. Technology plays a bigger role in American society.

B. Americans are more socially isolated today.

C. Americans don’t make good use of technology.

D. Americans are more socially connected today.

36. Which of the following has nothing to do with the isolation among Americans?

A. Skin color B. Gender C. Education D. Age

37. The writer himself __________ .

A. has a wide range of friends because of technology

B. has a wide range of friends because of technology

C. can only find true friendship through the Internet

D. can’t make true friends in actual life

38. The word “those” in paragraph 2 refers to __________.

A. networks B. Americans C. general people D. close friends

39. The word “sustain” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to__________.

A. make something continue to exist B. let someone suffer a lot

C. making something remain secure D. support someone emotionally

40. The writer uses the phrase “On the other hand” in the last paragraph to .

A. show something similar B. give a different opinion

C. introduce a new idea D. prove that something is wrong

41. What can be said about the mother and son in the passage?

A. There was not much communication between them.

B. They came for therapy in the same car.

C. They were quite close to each other.

D. They preferred talking to each other on cell phones.

42. Which of the following is NOT true, according to the passage?

A. Modern people link to each other through telecommunications.

B. Americans seem to have fewer and fewer close friends.

C. The writer has never met some of his important friends.

D. Users of SUV enjoy talking to each other on the cell phones.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

43. Buying clothes are often a very time-consuming practice because those clothes that a person likes are rarely the ones that fit him or her.

A. are B. a very time-consuming C. because those D. are rarely the ones

44. I suggest that it ought to have an entertaining page with the lists of what’s on at local cinemas.

A. entertaining B. lists C. local D. cinemas

45. Chemical engineering is based on the principles of physics, chemists, and mathematics.

A. engineering B. on C. of D. chemists

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

46. “You’d better think carefully before applying for that job”, she said to me.

A. She said me to think carefully before applying for that job.

B. She say me to think carefully before applying for that job.

C. She advise me to think carefully before applying for that job.

D. She advised me to think carefully before applying for that job.

47. Jane can swim further than I can.

A. I can’t swim as far as Jane B. I can swim as far as Jane

C. Jane can’t swim as far as I can D. Jane can swim as far as I can.

48. I’m sure it wasn’t Mr. Park you saw at the conference because he is in Seoul now.

A. It mustn’t have been Mr. Park you saw at the conference because he is in Seoul now.

B. It couldn’t be Mr. Park you saw at the conference because he is in Seoul now.

C. It can’t have been Mr. Park you saw at the conference because he is in Seoul now.

D. It mightn’t be Mr. Park you saw at the conference because he is in Seoul now.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

49. Joe has finished his first-aid course. He proves extremely helpful as a rescue worker.

A. Although Joe proves extremely helpful as a rescue worker, he hasn’t finished his first-aid course.

B. Having finished his first-aid course, Joe proves extremely helpful as a rescue worker.

C. Without finishing his first-aid course, Joe proves extremely helpful as a rescue worker.

D. However helpful Joe proves as a rescue worker, he hasn’t finished his first-aid course.

50. She tried very hard to pass the driving test. She could hardly pass it.

A. Although she didn’t try hard to pass the driving test, she could pass it.

B. Despite being able to pass the driving test, she didn’t pass it

C. No matter how hard she tried, she could hardly pass the driving test

D. She tried very hard, so she passed the driving test satisfactorily

ĐÁP ÁN TEST 19

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

1. A. hands B. occasions C. associates D. others

2. A. pay B. clay C. essay D. said

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

3. A. design B. marry C. caring D. special

4. A. exciting B. charity C. convenient D. surprising

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

5. The conical leaf hat is made _____ a special kind _____bamboo and young and soft palm leaves.

A. in/for B. of/of C. on/for D. from/of

6. ____ should try to make good impression on interviewers.

A. apply B. Applicants C. Applying D. Applied

7. The city is determined to rid itself of problems with drainage, waste, air and noise pollution ___ to make Vietnam’s aged capital a clean and green city.

A. so that B. in order that C. to order D. so as

8. If it rained heavily, the fields _____ flooded now.

A. will be B. had been C. would be D. can be

9. They search ____ for the missing documents but they were never found.

A. to and for B. high and low C. up and down D. back to back

10. If one ____ a killing, one must expect to suffer the consequences.

A. creates B. makes C. commits D. shows

11. After finishing the presentation, I suggested ___ to the cinema.

A. us to go B. that we to go C. going D. we going

12. They ____ for more than five miles but they did not stop to rest.

A. were walking B. have walk C. had been walking D. have been walking

13. The spirit of the Asian Games has been ___ over a long period of time, and passed from one Games to the next spreading massages of unity, warmth and friendship.

A. gone over B. put off C. looked for D. built up

14. It is only recently that ballets have been based on themes _____ American life.

A. reflecting B. reflects C. is reflecting D. reflected

15. They are not coming, ______?

A. are they B. aren’t they C. they are D. don’t they

16. I cannot remember if I saw that play on ____ television or at the cinema.

A. a B. an C. x D. the

17. It is not easy to _____________ our beauty when we get older and older.

A. maintain B. develop C. gain D. collect

18. Gabriel Garcia Marquez, a Colombian writer whose book One Hundred Years of Solitude is among his most famous, ________________ the Nobel prize in 1982.

A. who won B. having won C. which won D. won

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

19. Every opponent must take a drug test before the race.

A. friend B. ally C. partner D. competitor

20. The movie was so funny that we couldn’t help laughing.

A. chuckling B. crying C. weeping D. moaning

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

21. My father is willing to contribute to household chores.

A. agreeable B. reluctant C. ready D. responsive

22. He is extremely smart. He's head and shoulders above anyone else in the class.

A. better than B. inferior to C. more clever than D. superior to

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges.

23- "What’s the matter? You don’t look very well." - "_____________________________."

A. I feel a little under the weather B. I feel a little under the impression

C. I feel a little out of the blue D. I feel a little out of order

24. - Kate: __________!

- Jackie: Thanks, I will write to you when I come to London.

A. Have a nice trip B. Better luck next time C. Let’s go ahead D. Have a go

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 25 to 29.

Most people work to earn a living, and produce goods and services. Goods are (25) ____agricultural (like wheat and milk) or manufactured (like cars and paper). Services are such things (26) ____ education, medicine and commerce. Some people provide products. An example can be a man who produces goods such as rice. Some provide services. In a hotel, services can range from cleaning, washing to arranging tours within and outside the city where (27) ____. Other people provide both goods and services. For example, in the same garage, a man may buy a car or some service which helps him to maintain his car.

The work people do is called economic activity. All economic activities together make up the economic system of a town, a city, a country or the world. Such an economic system is the sum (28)___ and what they want. The work people undertake either provide what they need or provides the money with (29)____ they can buy essential commodities. Of course, most people hope to earn enough money to buy commodities which are non-essential but which provide particular personal satisfaction, like toys for children, visits to cinema, computer games and books.

25. A. either B. both C. neither D. only

26. A. else B. for C. with D. as

27. A. are the guests staying B. the guests are staying

C. are staying the guests D. staying the guests are

28. A. what people do B. of total what people do

C. total of what people do D. of what people do in total

29. A. that B. without which C. the money D. which

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 30 to 34.

Most educational specialists believe that early childhood education should provide children with an awareness of their own abilities and the self-confidence in those they have. One of the approaches recognized by many experts as promoting these qualities is the Montessori method, first practiced by an Italian called Maria Montessori in the early 1900s. However, Nancy McCormick Rambusch is the one credited for popularizing the method in the US, where today there are over 400 Montessori schools.

The method helps children learn for themselves by providing them with instructional materials and tasks that facilitate discovery and manipulation. Through such exploration, children develop their senses and learn how to do everyday tasks without adult assistance. Other benefits include improvement in language skills, and acquaintance with elements of science, music and art.

30. What is the main idea of this passage?

A. To discuss the life and work of Maria Montessori

B. To explain the role of early education in children development

C. To descried the development of the Montessori method

D. To demonstrate how children learn social and cultural values.

31. According to the passage, who was the first responsible for spreading the Montessori method in the US?

A. A prominent educational expert

B. An administrator in the Development of Education

C. Maria Montessori

D. Nancy McCormick Rambusch

32. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a benefit of the Montessori method?

A. Improvement of language ability B. Knowledge of art and sciences

C. Capacity to perform adult tasks D. Development of tactile senses

33. The author of this passage probably feels that the Montessori method

A. has little long-lasting benefit for children B. is an effective means for children education

C. will lose its popularity in the US D. does not accomplish what it claims to achieve

34. The following paragraph most likely discusses

A. another educational approach beneficial to children

B. elements of science, music and art

C. additional practitioners of the Montessori method

D. details on the life of Maria Montessori.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.

Technology has utterly transformed our ability to communicate with each other. Linking to each other both literally and figuratively, many of us connect through cell phones, email, instant messaging, blogs, and networking web sites, yet we may be less connected to each other than we think.

According to a study, Americans are becoming increasingly socially isolated. The study reveals, for example, that one quarter of Americans say that they have no one to discuss important personal issues with, and that the number of close friends that American have has dropped from three to two. Meanwhile, the Boston Globe reports that this spreading isolation is experienced more sharply among those with less education, people of color, and older Americans. Unsurprisingly, those who are young, white, and well educated tend to have stronger social networks.

From my own experience I have to say that I’ve never felt more connected, thanks to a web of friends, family, and colleagues. One of my closest friends is someone I met through an online discussion group who lives hundreds of miles away from me. We have met face-to-face only twice, yet our regular electronic correspondence and cell phone calls sustain our close friendship. And, speaking of blogging, my blog has introduced me to people I would never have met otherwise and has led to enduring and important friendships.

On the other hand, I recently saw a scene unfold that proved to me how deeply disconnected we as Americans have become. I had just wrapped up a presentation on mediation at a family therapy center. As I was leaving, I noticed a mother and her teenage son who had just completed their session with their family therapist. After making their next appointment, they both took out their cell phones, placed calls, and began loud conversations with whoever was on the other end. I walked out behind them to the parking lot to my car. They both jumped into their SUV, and, as I saw them drive off, they were still talking on their cell phones. But, alas, not to each other.

35. What does the passage lead you to believe?

A. Technology plays a bigger role in American society.

B. Americans are more socially isolated today.

C. Americans don’t make good use of technology.

D. Americans are more socially connected today.

36. Which of the following has nothing to do with the isolation among Americans?

A. Skin color B. Gender C. Education D. Age

37. The writer himself __________ .

A. has a wide range of friends because of technology

B. has a wide range of friends because of technology

C. can only find true friendship through the Internet

D. can’t make true friends in actual life

38. The word “those” in paragraph 2 refers to __________.

A. networks B. Americans C. general people D. close friends

39. The word “sustain” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to__________.

A. make something continue to exist B. let someone suffer a lot

C. making something remain secure D. support someone emotionally

40. The writer uses the phrase “On the other hand” in the last paragraph to .

A. show something similar B. give a different opinion

C. introduce a new idea D. prove that something is wrong

41. What can be said about the mother and son in the passage?

A. There was not much communication between them.

B. They came for therapy in the same car.

C. They were quite close to each other.

D. They preferred talking to each other on cell phones.

42. Which of the following is NOT true, according to the passage?

A. Modern people link to each other through telecommunications.

B. Americans seem to have fewer and fewer close friends.

C. The writer has never met some of his important friends.

D. Users of SUV enjoy talking to each other on the cell phones.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

43. Buying clothes are often a very time-consuming practice because those clothes that a person likes are rarely the ones that fit him or her.

A. are B. a very time-consuming C. because those D. are rarely the ones

44. I suggest that it ought to have an entertaining page with the lists of what’s on at local cinemas.

A. entertaining B. lists C. local D. cinemas

45. Chemical engineering is based on the principles of physics, chemists, and mathematics.

A. engineering B. on C. of D. chemists

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

46. “You’d better think carefully before applying for that job”, she said to me.

A. She said me to think carefully before applying for that job.

B. She say me to think carefully before applying for that job.

C. She advise me to think carefully before applying for that job.

D. She advised me to think carefully before applying for that job.

47. Jane can swim further than I can.

A. I can’t swim as far as Jane B. I can swim as far as Jane

C. Jane can’t swim as far as I can D. Jane can swim as far as I can.

48. I’m sure it wasn’t Mr. Park you saw at the conference because he is in Seoul now.

A. It mustn’t have been Mr. Park you saw at the conference because he is in Seoul now.

B. It couldn’t be Mr. Park you saw at the conference because he is in Seoul now.

C. It can’t have been Mr. Park you saw at the conference because he is in Seoul now.

D. It mightn’t be Mr. Park you saw at the conference because he is in Seoul now.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

49. Joe has finished his first-aid course. He proves extremely helpful as a rescue worker.

A. Although Joe proves extremely helpful as a rescue worker, he hasn’t finished his first-aid course.

B. Having finished his first-aid course, Joe proves extremely helpful as a rescue worker.

C. Without finishing his first-aid course, Joe proves extremely helpful as a rescue worker.

D. However helpful Joe proves as a rescue worker, he hasn’t finished his first-aid course.

50. She tried very hard to pass the driving test. She could hardly pass it.

A. Although she didn’t try hard to pass the driving test, she could pass it.

B. Despite being able to pass the driving test, she didn’t pass it

C. No matter how hard she tried, she could hardly pass the driving test

D. She tried very hard, so she passed the driving test satisfactorily

PRACTICE TEST 20 - 2021

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

1. A. frightened B. stamped C. walked D. laughed

2. A. exactly B. exert C. exam D. excellent

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

3. A. penalty B. wilderness C. reunite D. fascinating

4. A. daughter B. decide C. provide D. enjoy

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

5. Increasing industrialization is challenging the province to ___ every effort to control pollution.

1. do B. create C. make D. give

6. You’d better not argue with them, ___ you’ll be fined.

1. if B. in case C. unless D. otherwise

7. If we heat water to 100 degrees Celsius, it ___

1. would boil B. will be boiling C. is boiling D. boils

8. I do believe that his study there will be ___ great benefit to his teaching career.

1. on B. to C. in D. of

9. “What’s wrong with you today? Did you get out of bed on the wrong ___?”

1. end B. edge C. foot D. side

10. After a terrible argument with his boss, she handed in her ____

1. reservation B. reputation C. resignation D. responsibility

11. In order for people to work together effectively, they need ____ each other’s needs.

1. to be sensitive to B. is sensitive for

C. sensitivity D. sensitive

12. He was late. When he _____ at the bus stop, the bus ___

1. arrived/ had already left B. had arrived/ left

C. has arrived/ left D. had arrived/ had left

13. I only have to keep on waling, _____?

1. won’t I B. mustn’t I C. don’t I D. haven’t I

14. How do the police ____ the rise in juvenile delinquency?

1. account for B. explain about C. make for D. look at

15. There was an accident in this area yesterday. A truck hit a tree and _____ driver was injured.

1. the B. a C. an D. this

16. Elephants ____________ the ecosystems they live in, and make it possible for a lot of other species to survive in those environments as well.

A. obtain B. remain C. maintain D. attain

17. ______________ unprepared for the exam, I felt sure I would get a low score.

A. Upon B. Having C. Being D. Because

18. It is thought that traditional marriage ____________ are important basis of limiting divorce rates.

A. records B. responses C. appearances D. values

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

19. The International Union for Conservation of Nature Red List is a comprehensive catalogue of the conservation status of species.

A. complete B. rational C. understandable D. valuable

20. Face-to-face socializing is not as preferred as virtual socializing among the youth.

A. direct B. facial C. available D. instant

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

21. We have to take on extra staff to deal with the increased workload.

A. approach B. employ C. dismiss D. meet

22. The president’s compassion for the refugees caused him to admit a very large number of them.

A. hostility B. sympathy C. friendship D. respect

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges.

23. - Diana: “Do you like the advanced training course you are taking, Anne?” - Anne: “ ______________”

A. No, thanks. B. No, not everyone.

C. By and large, yes.  D. Not me, I’m still waiting.

24. - “Hello. Could I speak to the manager, please?” – “___________________”

A. No, you can’t. B. Hello. But could you?

C. Yes, speaking. D. I’m answering you now.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 25 to 29.

LIFE OF EARTH IN 2110

The worst prediction for the next century (25)________ the weather. Many people think that global warming will cause important environmental changes. There is scientific evidence that suggests cities on the coast may disappear if the sea level (26)________. There is better news regarding health. Medical advances mean that people will live longer. Doctors will be more successfully diagnosing an illness (27)________ of new technology. Infective diseases will disappear in many areas of the world and new drugs will be how to treat muscular aches and pains. Futuristic organ transplants will be easier. Finally, scientists think they are near to solving the mystery (28)________ to make people invisible. Technological progress will give experts the chance to manufacture invisibility cloaks, which may be (29)________ the market before the end of the century.

25. A. involves B. concerns C. relates D. contacts

26. A. lifts B. rises C. roars D. raises

27. A. because B. approving C. in spite D. regardless

28. A. necessary B. accessible C. available D. essential

29. A. at B. on C. in D. to

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 30 to 34.

LIVING A BALANCED LIFESTYLE

When we talk about living a healthy life, there is a famous old saying, "You are what you eat". In fact, it is not

just what people eat, but their whole lifestyle, which is important. The best way to stay healthy is to live a balanced lifestyle. Are you living a balanced lifestyle both physically and mentally?

Physical Balance

The human body needs physical exercise at least once a day. In today's world, many working people spend most of their day sitting at a desk. To add more exercise to your daily life, try to stop what you are doing about once an hour and stretch or take a short walk. After work, take a brisk walk or go to the gym. Your body will thank you for it.

For good health, nutritionists say we should eat at least four servings of raw food a day. By eating many colorful fruits and vegetables, you can be sure you are getting the correct nutrients. Have a red apple with your breakfast, a green salad at lunch, some carrots for your afternoon snack, and grapes for dessert instead of cake or cookies. Of course, for a healthy balance, your body also needs other foods.

Mental Balance

Mentally balanced people are usually emotionally balanced. They are generally happy with the things they have. They do not need to have more and more things. A mentally balanced person also feels good about who they are. They don't worry about the past, and generally have good relationships with the people around them. That doesn't mean that mentally healthy people never have negative feelings, but they don't let these types of feelings control them or their behavior. It's normal for people to feel their emotions, life always has its challenges and tragedies. But mentally healthy people face those challenges and resolve them quickly instead of allowing them to take control of their lives. By taking a little time each day to eat well, exercise, and clear your mind, anyone can live a more balanced and healthier lifestyle.

30. According to the article, people need to exercise _________.

A. once a day B. in the evenings after work C. for one hour at a time D. once an hour

31. The following statements are recommended as ways to get physical exercise EXCEPT _________.

A. going to a gym B. playing sports C. taking a walk D. stretching

32. According to the article, to have a balanced lifestyle, people need to __________.

A. let their feelings control their behavior B. work less and exercise more

C. eat cookies and cake only once a week D. take care of both their physical and mental health

33. Which statement is true, according to the article?

A. Mentally healthy people also face challenges and tragedies.

B. A healthy, balanced lifestyle is difficult for most people.

C. Fruits and vegetables should only be eaten raw.

D. People should exercise at least four times a day.

34. The author wrote this article mostly to ___________.

A. show that mental health is more important than physical health

B. tell people which foods are and are not healthy

C. tell people about the key parts of a balanced lifestyle

D. make sure everyone gets enough exercise in their lives

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.

Social networking sites like Facebook and MySpace do not help you make more genuine close friends, according to a survey by researchers who studied how the websites are changing the nature of friendship networks. Although social networking on the internet helps people to collect hundreds or even thousands of acquaintances, the researchers believe that face to face contact is nearly always necessary to form truly close friendships.

"Although the numbers of friends people have on these sites can be massive, the actual number of close friends is approximately the same in the face to face real world," said Will Reader at Sheffield Hallam University. Social networking websites such as Facebook, Bebo and MySpace have taken off rapidly in recent years. Facebook was launched initially in 2004 for Harvard University members but has since expanded to over 34m users worldwide. MySpace, which was set up in 2003, has over 200m users and was bought by Rupert Murdoch's News Corporation in 2005 for $580m.

Previous research has suggested that a person's conventional friendship group consists of around 150 people, with five very close friends but larger numbers of people who we keep in touch with less regularly. This figure is so consistent that scientists have suggested it is determined by the cognitive constraints of keeping up with large numbers of people. But Dr. Reader and his team have found that social networking sites do allow people to stretch this figure. The team asked over 200 people to fill in questionnaires about their online networking, asking for example how many online friends they had, how many of these were close friends and how many they had met face to face. The team found that although the sites allowed contact with hundreds of acquaintances, as with conventional friendship networks, people tend to have around 5 close friends. Also, 90% of contacts that the subjects regarded as close friends were people they had met face to face. "People see face to face contact as being absolutely imperative in forming close friendships," added Dr. Reader. He told the British Association Festival of Science in York that social networking sites allow people to broaden their list of nodding acquaintances because staying in touch online is easy. "What social network sites can do is decrease the cost of maintaining and forming these social networks because we can post information to multiple people," he said.

But to develop a real friendship we need to see that the other person is trustworthy. "We invest time and effort in them in the hope that sometime they will help us out. It is a kind of reciprocal relationship," said Dr. Reader, "What we need is to be absolutely sure that a person is really going to invest in us, is really going to be there for us when we need them...It's very easy to be deceptive on the internet."

35. Which of the following could best describe the main idea of the passage?

A. Social networking sites help modern people to expand their friend list.

B. Can we make real friends online?

C. Meeting their friends face-to-face is the best way to make close friends.

D. Social netwoking sites play important role in making true friends.

36. The following are true about online friendship, EXCEPT_________.

A. The number of online friends you can make on Facebook is more than that on MySpace.

B. The number of friends we have in the real world is nearly as many as that on social networking sites.

C. With the help of social netwoking sites, people can have myriad acquaintances.

D. Although the number of online friends is rather massive, each person only has some close friends.

37. The word “constraints” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to_________.

A. availability B. motivation C. inhibition D. stimulation

38. What does the word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to_________.

A. close friends B. onlone friends C. Social netwoking sites D. 200 people

39. According to the passage, Dr. Reader and his team have found that_________.

A. People tend to make as many online friends as they can.

B. Nine out of ten people considered as close friends as those having face-to-face contacts.

C. People only want to keep the conventional number of online friends.

D. Many people agree to make close friends online because it is easy to keep touch with them.

40. The word “deceptive” in the last sentence could best be replaced by_________.

A. deceitful B. faithful C. indistinct D. definite

41. What does the author imply in the last paragraph?

A. Mutual trust is the major quality that a friendship should have.

B. A friend in need is a friend indeed.

C. Give-and-take is really necessary in friendship.

D. Money is absolutely important in friendship.

42. Which of the following most accurately reflects the author’s opinion of making a close online friend?

A. positive B. supportive C. neutral D. skeptical

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

43. The book offers a fascinated sight of the lives of the rich and famous.

A. fascinated B. of C. the D. and

44. A number of large insurance companies has their headquarters in the capital city.

A. A number B. has C. their headquarters D. capital city

45. Dams are used to control flooding, provide water for irrigation, and generating electricity for the surrounding area.

A. to control flooding B. irrigation C. generating D. surrounding area

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

46. “Don’t bite your nails anymore,” said Mrs. Francesca to her son.

A. Mrs. Francesca told her son stop biting his nails.

B. Mrs. Francesca told her son to stop bite his nails.

C. Mrs. Francesca told her son to stop biting his nails.

D. Mrs. Francesca told her son to stop to bite his nails.

47. Roses can’t possibly grow in such poor ground.

A. We can grow roses in such poor ground

B. Such poor ground is not possible to grow roses

C. It is impossible to grow roses in such poor ground

D. It is impossibly that we grow roses in such poor ground.

48. The living room isn’t as big as the kitchen

A. The living room is bigger than the kitchen. B. The kitchen is not bigger than the living room.

C. The kitchen is smaller than the living room. D. The kitchen is bigger than the living room.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

49. Susan didn’t apply for the summer job in the café. She now regrets it.

A. Susan wishes that she had applied for the summer job in the café.

B. If only Susan didn’t apply for the summer job in the café.

C. Susan wishes that she applied for the summer job in the café.

D. Susan feels regret because she didn’t apply for the summer job in the café.

50. The Prime Minister failed to explain the cause of the economic crisis, he did not offer any solutions.

A. Although the Prime Minister explained the cause of the economic crisis, he failed to offer any solutions.

B. Not only did the Prime Minister explain the cause of the economic crisis, but he also offered solutions.

C. The Prime Minister offered some solutions based on the explanation of the cause of the economic crisis.

D. The Prime Minister didn’t explain the cause of the economic crisis, nor did he offer any solutions

ĐÁP ÁN – TEST 20

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

1. A. frightened B. stamped C. walked D. laughed

2. A. exactly B. exert C. exam D. excellent

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

3. A. penalty B. wilderness C. reunite D. fascinating

4. A. daughter B. decide C. provide D. enjoy

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

17. Increasing industrialization is challenging the province to ___ every effort to control pollution.

2. do B. create C. make D. give

18. You’d better not argue with them, ___ you’ll be fined.

2. if B. in case C. unless D. otherwise

19. If we heat water to 100 degrees Celsius, it ___

2. would boil B. will be boiling C. is boiling D. boils

20. I do believe that his study there will be ___ great benefit to his teaching career.

2. on B. to C. in D. of

21. “What’s wrong with you today? Did you get out of bed on the wrong ___?”

2. end B. edge C. foot D. side

22. After a terrible argument with his boss, she handed in her ____

2. reservation B. reputation C. resignation D. responsibility

23. In order for people to work together effectively, they need ____ each other’s needs.

2. to be sensitive to B. is sensitive for

C. sensitivity D. sensitive

24. He was late. When he _____ at the bus stop, the bus ___

2. arrived/ had already left B. had arrived/ left

C. has arrived/ left D. had arrived/ had left

25. I only have to keep on waling, _____?

2. won’t I B. mustn’t I C. don’t I D. haven’t I

26. How do the police ____ the rise in juvenile delinquency?

2. account for B. explain about C. make for D. look at

27. There was an accident in this area yesterday. A truck hit a tree and _____ driver was injured.

2. the B. a C. an D. this

28. Elephants ____________ the ecosystems they live in, and make it possible for a lot of other species to survive in those environments as well.

A. obtain B. remain C. maintain D. attain

17. ______________ unprepared for the exam, I felt sure I would get a low score.

A. Upon B. Having C. Being D. Because

18. It is thought that traditional marriage ____________ are important basis of limiting divorce rates.

A. records B. responses C. appearances D. values

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

19. The International Union for Conservation of Nature Red List is a comprehensive catalogue of the conservation status of species.

A. complete B. rational C. understandable D. valuable

20. Face-to-face socializing is not as preferred as virtual socializing among the youth.

A. direct B. facial C. available D. instant

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

21. We have to take on extra staff to deal with the increased workload.

A. approach B. employ C. dismiss D. meet

22. The president’s compassion for the refugees caused him to admit a very large number of them.

A. hostility B. sympathy C. friendship D. respect

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges.

23. - Diana: “Do you like the advanced training course you are taking, Anne?” - Anne: “ ______________”

A. No, thanks. B. No, not everyone.

C. By and large, yes.  D. Not me, I’m still waiting.

24. - “Hello. Could I speak to the manager, please?” – “___________________”

A. No, you can’t. B. Hello. But could you?

C. Yes, speaking. D. I’m answering you now.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 25 to 29.

LIFE OF EARTH IN 2110

The worst prediction for the next century (25)________ the weather. Many people think that global warming will cause important environmental changes. There is scientific evidence that suggests cities on the coast may disappear if the sea level (26)________. There is better news regarding health. Medical advances mean that people will live longer. Doctors will be more successfully diagnosing an illness (27)________ of new technology. Infective diseases will disappear in many areas of the world and new drugs will be how to treat muscular aches and pains. Futuristic organ transplants will be easier. Finally, scientists think they are near to solving the mystery (28)________ to make people invisible. Technological progress will give experts the chance to manufacture invisibility cloaks, which may be (29)________ the market before the end of the century.

25. A. involves B. concerns C. relates D. contacts

26. A. lifts B. rises C. roars D. raises

27. A. because B. approving C. in spite D. regardless

28. A. necessary B. accessible C. available D. essential

29. A. at B. on C. in D. to

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 30 to 34.

LIVING A BALANCED LIFESTYLE

When we talk about living a healthy life, there is a famous old saying, "You are what you eat". In fact, it is not

just what people eat, but their whole lifestyle, which is important. The best way to stay healthy is to live a balanced lifestyle. Are you living a balanced lifestyle both physically and mentally?

Physical Balance

The human body needs physical exercise at least once a day. In today's world, many working people spend most of their day sitting at a desk. To add more exercise to your daily life, try to stop what you are doing about once an hour and stretch or take a short walk. After work, take a brisk walk or go to the gym. Your body will thank you for it.

For good health, nutritionists say we should eat at least four servings of raw food a day. By eating many colorful fruits and vegetables, you can be sure you are getting the correct nutrients. Have a red apple with your breakfast, a green salad at lunch, some carrots for your afternoon snack, and grapes for dessert instead of cake or cookies. Of course, for a healthy balance, your body also needs other foods.

Mental Balance

Mentally balanced people are usually emotionally balanced. They are generally happy with the things they have. They do not need to have more and more things. A mentally balanced person also feels good about who they are. They don't worry about the past, and generally have good relationships with the people around them. That doesn't mean that mentally healthy people never have negative feelings, but they don't let these types of feelings control them or their behavior. It's normal for people to feel their emotions, life always has its challenges and tragedies. But mentally healthy people face those challenges and resolve them quickly instead of allowing them to take control of their lives. By taking a little time each day to eat well, exercise, and clear your mind, anyone can live a more balanced and healthier lifestyle.

30. According to the article, people need to exercise _________.

A. once a day B. in the evenings after work C. for one hour at a time D. once an hour

31. The following statements are recommended as ways to get physical exercise EXCEPT _________.

A. going to a gym B. playing sports C. taking a walk D. stretching

32. According to the article, to have a balanced lifestyle, people need to __________.

A. let their feelings control their behavior B. work less and exercise more

C. eat cookies and cake only once a week D. take care of both their physical and mental health

33. Which statement is true, according to the article?

A. Mentally healthy people also face challenges and tragedies.

B. A healthy, balanced lifestyle is difficult for most people.

C. Fruits and vegetables should only be eaten raw.

D. People should exercise at least four times a day.

34. The author wrote this article mostly to ___________.

A. show that mental health is more important than physical health

B. tell people which foods are and are not healthy

C. tell people about the key parts of a balanced lifestyle

D. make sure everyone gets enough exercise in their lives

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.

Social networking sites like Facebook and MySpace do not help you make more genuine close friends, according to a survey by researchers who studied how the websites are changing the nature of friendship networks. Although social networking on the internet helps people to collect hundreds or even thousands of acquaintances, the researchers believe that face to face contact is nearly always necessary to form truly close friendships.

"Although the numbers of friends people have on these sites can be massive, the actual number of close friends is approximately the same in the face to face real world," said Will Reader at Sheffield Hallam University. Social networking websites such as Facebook, Bebo and MySpace have taken off rapidly in recent years. Facebook was launched initially in 2004 for Harvard University members but has since expanded to over 34m users worldwide. MySpace, which was set up in 2003, has over 200m users and was bought by Rupert Murdoch's News Corporation in 2005 for $580m.

Previous research has suggested that a person's conventional friendship group consists of around 150 people, with five very close friends but larger numbers of people who we keep in touch with less regularly. This figure is so consistent that scientists have suggested it is determined by the cognitive constraints of keeping up with large numbers of people. But Dr. Reader and his team have found that social networking sites do allow people to stretch this figure. The team asked over 200 people to fill in questionnaires about their online networking, asking for example how many online friends they had, how many of these were close friends and how many they had met face to face. The team found that although the sites allowed contact with hundreds of acquaintances, as with conventional friendship networks, people tend to have around 5 close friends. Also, 90% of contacts that the subjects regarded as close friends were people they had met face to face. "People see face to face contact as being absolutely imperative in forming close friendships," added Dr. Reader. He told the British Association Festival of Science in York that social networking sites allow people to broaden their list of nodding acquaintances because staying in touch online is easy. "What social network sites can do is decrease the cost of maintaining and forming these social networks because we can post information to multiple people," he said.

But to develop a real friendship we need to see that the other person is trustworthy. "We invest time and effort in them in the hope that sometime they will help us out. It is a kind of reciprocal relationship," said Dr. Reader, "What we need is to be absolutely sure that a person is really going to invest in us, is really going to be there for us when we need them...It's very easy to be deceptive on the internet."

35. Which of the following could best describe the main idea of the passage?

A. Social networking sites help modern people to expand their friend list.

B. Can we make real friends online?

C. Meeting their friends face-to-face is the best way to make close friends.

D. Social netwoking sites play important role in making true friends.

36. The following are true about online friendship, EXCEPT_________.

A. The number of online friends you can make on Facebook is more than that on MySpace.

B. The number of friends we have in the real world is nearly as many as that on social networking sites.

C. With the help of social netwoking sites, people can have myriad acquaintances.

D. Although the number of online friends is rather massive, each person only has some close friends.

37. The word “constraints” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to_________.

A. availability B. motivation C. inhibition D. stimulation

38. What does the word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to_________.

A. close friends B. onlone friends C. Social netwoking sites D. 200 people

39. According to the passage, Dr. Reader and his team have found that_________.

A. People tend to make as many online friends as they can.

B. Nine out of ten people considered as close friends as those having face-to-face contacts.

C. People only want to keep the conventional number of online friends.

D. Many people agree to make close friends online because it is easy to keep touch with them.

40. The word “deceptive” in the last sentence could best be replaced by_________.

A. deceitful B. faithful C. indistinct D. definite

41. What does the author imply in the last paragraph?

A. Mutual trust is the major quality that a friendship should have.

B. A friend in need is a friend indeed.

C. Give-and-take is really necessary in friendship.

D. Money is absolutely important in friendship.

42. Which of the following most accurately reflects the author’s opinion of making a close online friend?

A. positive B. supportive C. neutral D. skeptical

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

43. The book offers a fascinated sight of the lives of the rich and famous.

A. fascinated B. of C. the D. and

44. A number of large insurance companies has their headquarters in the capital city.

A. A number B. has C. their headquarters D. capital city

45. Dams are used to control flooding, provide water for irrigation, and generating electricity for the surrounding area.

A. to control flooding B. irrigation C. generating D. surrounding area

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

46. “Don’t bite your nails anymore,” said Mrs. Francesca to her son.

A. Mrs. Francesca told her son stop biting his nails.

B. Mrs. Francesca told her son to stop bite his nails.

C. Mrs. Francesca told her son to stop biting his nails.

D. Mrs. Francesca told her son to stop to bite his nails.

47. Roses can’t possibly grow in such poor ground.

A. We can grow roses in such poor ground

B. Such poor ground is not possible to grow roses

C. It is impossible to grow roses in such poor ground

D. It is impossibly that we grow roses in such poor ground.

48. The living room isn’t as big as the kitchen

A. The living room is bigger than the kitchen. B. The kitchen is not bigger than the living room.

C. The kitchen is smaller than the living room. D. The kitchen is bigger than the living room.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

49. Susan didn’t apply for the summer job in the café. She now regrets it.

A. Susan wishes that she had applied for the summer job in the café.

B. If only Susan didn’t apply for the summer job in the café.

C. Susan wishes that she applied for the summer job in the café.

D. Susan feels regret because she didn’t apply for the summer job in the café.

50. The Prime Minister failed to explain the cause of the economic crisis, he did not offer any solutions.

A. Although the Prime Minister explained the cause of the economic crisis, he failed to offer any solutions.

B. Not only did the Prime Minister explain the cause of the economic crisis, but he also offered solutions.

C. The Prime Minister offered some solutions based on the explanation of the cause of the economic crisis.

D. The Prime Minister didn’t explain the cause of the economic crisis, nor did he offer any solutions